What is time??

If you think of time as a field as you work away from an object the field gets less effected by the object, and becomes fuzzy. If you accelerate into the field you squash it, and the field gets less fuzzy, comes into focus with that object. If you spin the object, the field fuzzily rotates with the object. If the object is stationary the field is at its fuzziest, and least propagated.

Then you move to step 2. If you can control the entire field at a distance you can step through time in a different order.

Then you move to step 3. If the brain is a field, and that field includes time. You initial starting energy is not necessarily in the sequence of the following events. Apprehension is to make an assumption of a future event. So your brain can wait for energy at the end of the field, ready to put a thought into a slot before the energy is released. The brain is making plans ahead of time, in a field that includes time in a none linear progression. This is because an internal time field can be propagated from any direction. Most of the time we are looking at the world outwardly, and time looks linear outwardly, but internally you can do whatever you like with it. You have full control of the physics in every direction.

I think in the step 3 , you explained the mechanics of perception or prediction . Perhaps , our mind follows quantum-principle .
 
Scale, which is a none time dependent factor. If something has scale it just exists. If it expands, it is merely soaking up energy in a static space. If it scales up to eventually have locality with another particle then cause can begin, and particles can now cause effects on other particles.

What do you mean by 'scale' ? How is it independant of time ?
 
What do you mean by 'scale' ? How is it independant of time ?

Time is an outward field for the Universe , but scale is an inward field. I suppose that time does exist inside the particle, but isn't being passed along. You could say that time has began for the particle, but not the universe. The only effects happening are to individual particles.
 
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Time is an outward field for the Universe , but scale is an inward field.
Do you mean to say that , time and scale are opposite ?
I suppose that time does exist inside the particle,
time also exists outside the particle .
but isn't being passed along.
What do you mean here ?
You could say that time has began for the particle, but not the universe.
Time is universal.
The only effects happening are to individual particles.
Time is relative to an observer . An observer is always in the present and this present is part of time . As the observer moves from one 'present' to another 'present' ; so moves the time .
 
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Do you mean to say that , time and scale are opposite ? time also exists outside the particle . What do you mean here ? Time is universal. Time is relative to an observer . An observer is always in the present and this present is part of time . As the observer moves from one 'present' to another 'present' ; so moves the time .

What observer? You said "What is cause 1?" so how did an observer suddenly appear? This is day 1 of the universe, no time, just scale, because I thought your question was what happened first in the universe. But now it seems like you want to start with space time already evolved. And this is more like.. what is cause(1000000000000000000000000000000E)? And I'm not allowed to answer any further than to say locality, else I go into my own theory.

But I suppose I can link you to it...

http://www.sciforums.com/showthread.php?t=110750
 
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What observer?
I just mentioned my understanding of time in relation with an observer .
You said "What is cause 1?"
To explain cause(1) ; you came upto scale but havent yet clearly defined as to " what is scale ?" .
so how did an observer suddenly appear?
Where does an observer stands in relation to cause(1) or scale ?
This is day 1 of the universe, no time, just scale,
Day 1 is also part of time . So , how time can be excluded from day 1.
because I thought your question was what happened first in the universe.
My question is ; what is the origin of time ? or following your explanation ; what is the cause of cause(1) ?
 
I just mentioned my understanding of time in relation with an observer . To explain cause(1) ; you came upto scale but havent yet clearly defined as to " what is scale ?" . Where does an observer stands in relation to cause(1) or scale ? Day 1 is also part of time . So , how time can be excluded from day 1. My question is ; what is the origin of time ? or following your explanation ; what is the cause of cause(1) ?

Well I don't have a word for Day 1.. it's like limbo. Time is a field, and its a particle field, a grain. But cause 1 can't happen until the grain becomes a local field. The Early universe wouldn't have a local field. The field would be spread out. X/Y/Z would be fuzzy, and unconnected. Time would just be inflation which is scale. You can't be an observer without a field to observe through, so a particle can only have it's own internal physics, and no outwardly passable physics until it becomes local to another particle. Cause(1) + Cause(2) = Effect(1) is to pass a message, and scale is the only way to pass movement. If you had a bunch of stationary balloons, the only way they could pass a message is to inflate them until they touch one another.
 
Hansda, the portion in bold above is problematic.
Without clarifying what you mean by "gravity field" and any spacial limitations implied, you wind up with overlapping fields with conflicting influences and momentums.
For this discussion just consider the space within our earth . As you earlier said that "absolute rest" for a mass is not possible with relative to space ; but "relative rest" is possible for a mass with relative to space . "Relative rest" is proven with the static-mass within the Earth's space ."Relative-rest" is , as good as "Absolute-rest" (from the point of view for interaction between mass and space) . Within the Earth's space , if a mass is spinned at a very high rpm ; it will cause frame-dragging . But the same mass at "relative rest" with the Earth's space will not cause any frame-dragging .So, this proves that space and spacetime are different .
Does the Earth's gravity field extend to the moon or sun?
The Earth's gravity field extends upto a distance , from where a mass can free-fall towards the surface of our Earth .
And how does it interact with the gravity fields of other objects in space.
It interacts through the principles of field-theory .
How does this affect the frame dragging effect associated with the sun, moon and other planets?
The Sun , moon and other planets cause frame-dragging due to their mass , spin and/or velocity .
The definition you present above seems more ridged than is possible when the gravitational influence of astronomical bodies overlap.
The space within the gravity of an astronomical body and the space outer must be same .Gravitional influence may overlap but this will not change the basic characteistics of space .
 
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“ Originally Posted by hansda
What is cause(1) ?




locality. If you imagine an bunch of none local particles, they cannot cause influence on anything else (forget action at a distance, because there is a bunch of invisible locality involved).

non-sense

I would have thought that by know we all know that " space " is NOT empty

chiral condesate

and all the particle get smaller is size as we investigate further into energy and matter
 
I'm sure I said this before

time is the measurement of the movemnet of things

hence we get the mathematical 4 dimensional representation of things

because we want know where they will be at this point in time , in the future

this is ALL based on the movement of objects

if I were to change any mathematical equation , that included time , and changed the time numbers , nothing would happen physically to the objects involved
 
non-sense

I would have thought that by know we all know that " space " is NOT empty

chiral condesate

and all the particle get smaller is size as we investigate further into energy and matter

There are no words in the quote that say anything about empty. In fact the quote talks about locality. For a field to be local, it cannot be empty.
 
I'm sure I said this before

time is the measurement of the movemnet of things

hence we get the mathematical 4 dimensional representation of things

because we want know where they will be at this point in time , in the future

this is ALL based on the movement of objects

if I were to change any mathematical equation , that included time , and changed the time numbers , nothing would happen physically to the objects involved

All you have done is change the chicken to the egg. Time is a measurement of movement. Movement is measured over time. The 4D can be moved into 3D if you polarize it between particles. This way, the relativistic weirdness is shared between the observer, and the moving body, and equals out better.
 
“ Originally Posted by river
non-sense

I would have thought that by know we all know that " space " is NOT empty

chiral condesate

and all the particle get smaller is size as we investigate further into energy and matter




There are no words in the quote that say anything about empty. In fact the quote talks about locality. For a field to be local, it cannot be empty.

hence the problem

to say that locality, is only local in is influence is wrong , in my thinking

the outside or how you define locality limits , does but doesn't

there are outside forces that have influence as well , no matter where you draw the line between locality and the without
 
hence the problem

to say that locality, is only local in is influence is wrong , in my thinking

the outside or how you define locality limits , does but doesn't

there are outside forces that have influence as well , no matter where you draw the line between locality and the without

The space grain has been identified. Even its scale has been identified. Scientists are in a quandary why space-time is smaller in one direction than the other. So there is locality everywhere now. But if you go back to the very first cause.. cause(1) then you have to say that space-time had not formed yet. If you are thinking about attraction... then I feel that attraction is a bad word to use, because science tries to eliminate pure attraction with either Gravitons, or just the bending of space-time. Either way the attraction is being situated locally. And local attraction, is a bit of a paradoxical use of words.
 
“ Originally Posted by river
hence the problem

to say that locality, is only local in is influence is wrong , in my thinking

the outside or how you define locality limits , does but doesn't

there are outside forces that have influence as well , no matter where you draw the line between locality and the without


The space grain has been identified. Even its scale has been identified.

well lets give this some time shall we

Scientists are in a quandary why space-time is smaller in one direction than the other. So there is locality everywhere now. But if you go back to the very first cause.. cause(1) then you have to say that space-time had not formed yet.

I wonder though in how MANY directions , that space-time is smaller in one direction than another , 360degrees , or there abouts wouldn't surprise me
 
well lets give this some time shall we



I wonder though in how MANY directions , that space-time is smaller in one direction than another , 360degrees , or there abouts wouldn't surprise me

Scientists say linear, like a magnet North to south pole. But relative to a single body you wouldn't notice the effect.
 
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