Matticious G ...
MatticiousG--
Of Docetism, let me point out, as per the broader topic, I do believe that the questions
Cris are invoking are the reason for the Church regard toward what I have learned the standard definition of the heresy. However, the clarification you've provided from Saint Thomas is most helpful. How, for instance, are those dogmas established? In the longer run, this becomes vital to the topic; for the moment, I propose it as food for thought.
Of the catechism ... does this imply, then that God and Man are not disparate states? Such as, for instance,
square circle? Again, in the longer run, this idea becomes vital... I hope to explain that vital necessity as we go.
notice that the belief that Jesus is also human is left out as an a priori. Granted from the quote he supplied this was not stated. Still I contend that if Cris wishes to demonstrate that the crucifixion is meaningless then he must include all beliefs that are relevant to the argument. I feel that the belief in Jesus's human nature is entirely relevant because it affects the conclusion drastically.
This is an excellent point, but again, I must necessarily point out the separation this maintains 'twixt Jesus and you or I. Even if we include that human nature, doesn't seem to change much. Such as we see"
• Jesus, on the Cross, had both his divine and human nature. As per the nature of experience, we can say that neither you nor I, on the Cross, would have that divine perspective. I submit that, with additional knowledge and security, the nature of suffering was changed. It isn't that Jesus isn't you, or isn't me, and therefore cannot have
that perspective. But, having divine knowledge, he has a perspective which is unique from humankind; that is, it is beyond human.
• God, in
giving his Son,
knows that despite all else, the Son is still coming home. This security in relation to death is beyond the
human experience as well. Knowing your Son is about to die, you cannot smile and say, "He'll be home Sunday."
Jesus' human nature
affects the conclusion drastically only if the sacrifice is made without the knowledge of his station unto God. Let's put it this way: Clark Kent
took a bullet for Lois Lane in the 1970s
Superman film. He
took a bullet for her. What a sacrifice. Oh, what a noble man. He's Superman: he
caught the bullet. It's all in how you say it, of a sort.
A question, then: Is the Son still crucified in Heaven, or is he whole and perfect in the Glory of the Father?
I mean, Superman has a human nature--Clark Kent. Christ has a human nature--Jesus. And Jesus knew his station unto God, and made that quite clear.
False dilema. In return I offer an alternative definition that is highly relevant as it refers to exactly the type of sacrifice the crucifixion was meant to be:
quote:
1. To make an offering of; to consecrate or present to a divinity by way of expiation or propitiation, or as a token acknowledgment or thanksgiving; to immolate on the altar of God, in order to atone for sin, to procure favor, or to express thankfulness; as, to sacrifice an ox or a sheep.
As this definition shows there is no need to demonstrate that the sacrifice is a permanent loss of something of immense value. Only that it was:
A. Offered for the atonement of sins
B. immolated(killed)
I must put this question to you, as it really does puzzle me how much it's coming into play:
What degree of sacrifice are we discussing, then?
First of all, are you proposing that that God expressed thankfulness to Himself by sacrificing himself through His Son? It almost seems inherent in that definition.
Furthermore, did God
give,
lend, or
loan his Son unto us?
Was it just a little sacrifice, then?
Loone, for instance, called it the Ultimate Sacrifice. That doesn't sound little. But three days in the face of eternity, the knowledge that one will be home three days after this part ends, the knowledge that this is what you wanted it to lead up to since the Creation of these human wretches?
I just don't get what constitutes an "Ultimate Sacrifice".
There is a fallacy of exclusion here. Namely the belief that Jesus was human has been excluded. If it were included then the following conclusions could be drawn.
1. Jesus was both Human and Devine.
2. Jesus' nature had two essenses(one being devine and the other being human)
3. Human's can die.
4. Jesus' human essence can die.
5. Jesus' human essence was killed (I'm assuming this is an unstated assumption made by everyone involved?)
6. Jesus' human essence was offered as atonement for everyone's sins.
7. Jesus by virtue of his human essence was sacrificed.
8. The purpose of the crucifixion was the sacrifice of Jesus for the atonement of our sins.
9. The purpose of the crucifixion was fullfilled.
You are enacting your own sense of exclusion here. The
fallacy of exclusion you point out is only relevant if Jesus' human nature is utterly and completely exclusive. The combination of this trait and an advantage casts the sacrifice against the advantageous. When the human essence hurt and died, it did so with the knowledge that it (the human essence) was nonessential, since the source of being was
known (e.g.--not held in faith) to be of something greater. In holding so
exclusively to the human essence, you are overlooking the fact that the human essence had a
different human experience than any other human essence in the history or future of the world. And again, I'm not being so specific as to say Jesus isn't me and Jesus isn't you and Jesus isn't .... What I'm after here is that never before, not presently, and never again among humanity will human beings enjoy the advantages of divinity in any sense relevant to the sacrifice. If, for instance, God does redeem the world, it means we all get to share, and then we get to approximate what that sacrifice was. And it will be something less than Ultimate or Supreme. In fact, given the range of God's power, the sacrifice seems somewhat mundane. In that abstraction, then certes we are redeemed, but why put on the show and cause so much misery and sin in the mortal world with dishonesty? That result makes God out to be slightly lunatic, or at least extraneous.
Sure, Jesus, by virtue of his human essence was sacrificed. As you've pointed out, though, there are many kinds of sacrifices. This one just doesn't seem as large as the idea it fosters.
Correct. Whether or not to devote oneself to Jesus and entrust him as a Redeemer based on the magnitude of that sacrifice also becomes a False Dilemma, since the magnitude does
not necessarily--in fact, does not by any appearance constitute--a great sacrifice. It is a demonstrative sacrifice, but being that the man-made (imperfect) dogmas create a situation of either disparate states, whereupon Jesus has knowledge and security by his divine nature, which no other human essence has, or else common states, in which mankind and God are not actually different except for the sake of God's Will and our perception. For as God cannot create disparate states, such as
square circle how, then, can God invoke true God and true Man in one act of will unless they be of common state? At that point, this whole ritual of Christianity becomes an utter farce, and that, while it would please a great many infidels, doesn't seem to be the philosophical result Christians themselves seek.
leads to an invalid conclusion.
Given the invalidity of the false dilemma which you feel invalidates said conclusion, I invalidate your invalidation
First a groundless assumption is made that in order for a religious sacrifice to have meaning the suffering must experienced by the entity making the sacrifice.
Second, another assumption is made that the entity making the sacrifice (in this case God. I might also add that Jesus too was making the sacrifice by offering himself willingly)
Third another assumption is made that the suffering experienced must be similar to the suffering a human would experience at the loss of a child
(1)
I just went out, got laid by the most beautiful woman in the world, and spent a million dollars on hashish which I will proceed to smoke for the rest of my life. You ought to be thankful for the sacrifice I've made on your behalf. If the entity making the sacrifice indicates the high priest who is killing the bird or wounding the goat, sure. But if you're the scapegoat? Say, the "Lamb of God"? And since, as you note, creeds point out Jesus' suffering, might I note that it is not groundless to assume suffering is part of the sacrifice Jesus and God are said to have made for us?
(2) Were the actual goats and birds willing to be stabbed or cut or burned? Nothing happens without God's Will. God knew from before Creation what would result. The scope of God's knowledge is made clear in a few places in the Bible. Did God not really know what was going to happen? What happens in the Universe without God's Will? When the corruption of humankind is such that it requires the Creator to patch the problem, it is because something is wrong with the creation. Are we to accept, then, that God doesn't know quite what He is doing? Hardly. Are we to accept that God didn't know Adam and Eve would fall? (Who
is the "us" in Genesis?)
(3) As
Cris is reminding: John 3.16. What, that God so loved the world that it was no big deal? God gave his Son, according to the Bible. If there is no association between the sufferings of human and divine parents, then are we thankful to God for the dog-and-pony microdrama that ended with that grisly execution on Golgotha? I think the Bible clearly reflects the notion that the meaning of the Bible is that God was to have lost his child; he so loved us that he would feel that pain on our behalf if it would save us. Is that not the principle of John 3.16, one of the most evangelized scriptural snippets ever?
These amount to another false dilema. They assume that the only meaningful degree of suffering comes from the loss felt as a result of death. What about the suffering that a father experiences as a result of knowing that his child is suffering. Is that not meaningful suffering? If a child was sick with a terminal disease and suffering greatly wouldn't the father experience a decrease in suffering when the child finally died?
(1) If God suffers because He knows the child is suffering, then why did God, knowing that if he said, "Go," on this particular design for life, the Unviverse, and everything, he would have to sacrifice his son, go forward? Was not Jesus born specifically to serve as this tool?
(2) Knowledge, security, and all those issues. Terminal disease? Yeah, I suppose it would suck. Of course, I wouldn't so much worry if I knew that my child would be back, perfect and healthy three days after dying. I would do what I could, in the meantime, to reduce their discomfort. That's more than God did.
(3) I thought Jesus rose from the dead. Kym is dead; I didn't get to have one last fish dinner with her. G is dead, and J didn't get to see him one last time. And, as the myth has it, Jesus went home after that, something else our dead friends don't get to do.
It still hasn't been proven that God did not suffer.
I think it's been quite clearly outlined that the alleged suffering of the divine agents in the crucifixion comedy is a different state than suffering in human beings.
Seriously, I'm thinking what everyone needs to do is watch
Soul Man; however, being that it does star C Thomas Howell, I'll summarize it and spare anyone who hasn't, uh,
suffered through it ... A rich UCLA graduate is cut off from his family the day he is accepted to Harvard Law. Desperate, he takes experimental tanning pills to make himself look like an African-American in order to obtain a specific scholarship. Aside from coincidentally stealing the scholarship from the woman he falls in love with, he experiences all manner of racism and harassment. But, in the end, with the ruse exposed and the world falling down around him, he tells his black professor something to the essence of, "No, I didn't learn what it was like to be black; I can stop being black." Just as he knows he is truly white, and has an out from his suffering, so, too does Jesus know he is divine, and this is his out from suffering. He knows what nobody else will know.
God designed the Universe so that He would have to build a solution to a fundamental problem He did not wish to address any other way and, endowing that solution with flesh of humanity
and knowledge of divinity ... how did God suffer? If God suffered, He's a little too hung up on Himself.
I was attempting to create an analogy to help illustrate and therefore add to the impact of what I was saying. I was hoping to put it into a meaningfull context by comparing it to a hypothetical argument that I might make where I expect you to reject the notion that the material world is not an illusion simply because it would prove my point.
But you're just switching definitions.
I was addressing the idea that his exclusion of the belief in Jesus's full humanity (the docetism heresy) in his proof amounts to a fallacy of exclusion.
Well enough, and I believe the issue is directly addressed above.
I was attempting to create an analogy to help illustrate and therefore add to the impact of what I was saying. I was hoping to put it into a meaningfull context by comparing it to a hypothetical argument that I might make where I expect you to reject the notion that the material world is not an illusion simply because it would prove my point.
Well, the problem with this portion of the debate is that I thought we'd covered that part a couple pages back, acknowledging the Christian source of the arguments; at that point, I suppose, I should withdraw the question about what you meant with the illusion comparison. It didn't seem to make any relevant sense to me, but given that we have resolved the point it addrsses, I'm willing to put it aside.
So do I
I think it has, but you might think I'm still missing something.
But now that you mentioned it, it does bring up a philosophical quandry I managed to get myself mixed up in. Specifically I wonder how I might prove that the real world is in fact real and not some illusion brought on (to refernce another post in a different area) by some alien race like the googols.
You read Descartes? I made that joke about German and French philosophers a couple times already. Hmmm ... now you've offered a reason to point to one of them. Descartes is a great place to start. Essentially, how do you know you're not dreaming right now? It's a nasty, nasty quandary. How, in fact, do you know that
you are the dreamer?
Also the irony of my philosophical bent leaning towards sceptisism, considering my religious inclinations, doesn't escape me either
Faith is affirmed, else it is blind or incorrect. That is, your faith will prove out or it won't, or you'll never find out. One or the other or the other. Well, sort of. But skepticism is a healthy facet of religious faith. Faith in God? Trust yourself. Faith in dogma? Skepticism on
all levels works best. And it would make a wonderful thread; I can't recall the last time we delved that issue here in any way.
In Augustine's defence he did live in a time waaaaay before Newton began pondering apples and planets. Still I've read some of his stuff and his arrogance is readily apparent yet rather amusing. However, I particularly enjoyed his Ontological Proof of God's existence and I would be interested in hearing your criticisms of it.
That, too, would be an excellent topic of its own ... hmmm work to do?
Hope the weekend is enjoyable ...
thanx,
Tiassa