I agree, but timeless space is the same as functionless energy, i.e *zero-state)
Can you even have timeless space as anything other than a conception?
OTOH, in the absence of all physical things on that order, physical laws don't apply and allowing for the FTL expansion of the universe (inflationary epoch).
The physical universe did exist during that phase, from the moment of the Big Bang onward. The physical laws did also apply but they were applied to states and forms of matter that may not be applicable to the current state of affairs. How else do you think we can model the earliest moments of the universe, or even devise theories such as the inflationary epoch.
When things cooled, a new order evolved, particles, and so on each mathematical state a more defined order, until expressed to us in *part* as reality.
You're losing me with this. Yes, the universe is more ordered, but what does that have to do with what has been said before.
But if you have a geometric relationship even in the abstract the scenario (implication) of a an unfolding universe which does not violate either GR or QM (it consideres then aspects of the mathematical function).
Sorry, you'll have to be a bit clearer... this sentence doesn't seem complete, and I'm not understanding you.
Does it make a difference if we can directly observe certain mathematical functions?
We can't directly observe them... we can only observe physical matter obeying those functions. As said, the maths seems, to me, to be merely a contingent property of existence that obeys rules.
Or of becoming existencent as a result of combined mathenatical functions.
Such as? Can you explain how it is even possible? At the moment it seems wishful thinking, and certainly doesn't seem to adhere to Occam's razor.
Tell me which part of H2O being able so exist in 3 differencestates from gas to liquid to solid is not a mathematical function depending on external
environment and conditions.
How is H2O existing in 3 different states evidence of mathematics being a cause? Yes, the different states can probably be explained mathematically, as everyone here would agree, but you're going a step further with maths being causal rather than descriptive.
Does the breadth of a brick cause it to do something? Or is the breadth just a property, and it is the actual matter within the brick that causes?
The few known *self-caused causalities* can be found in the chaotic inflation epoch and in say, hyper-novae
In what way is a hypernova self-caused?
What is there in the inflationary epoch that is in any way self-caused?
I admit, I have trouble coming up with a direct causality for a single event,
Only at the rather gross macro-level can one cause easily be discerned for an event (if only one cause exists). The more detailed level you look, the more likely it is to be a vastly complex set of interactions.
but what if the single event contains the energy of the entire universe with all the potentials ascribed to energy in one form or another becoming free energy, just like a balloon popping.
"What if"? What caused the balloon to pop? What caused the potential to accumulate? Where does the potential reside? Is potential equal to mathematics? Or is the mathematics merely a des
Who says mathematics is a contingent property of someting that exists, why can it not be the very essence of the fabric space-time geometry, which apparently exists.
Do you think that our mathematics would be the same in an entirely different universe, with entirely different conditions, laws, rules etc? Can a universe exist where one plus one equals three? Even if that existence is fleeting before it collapses in a pool of chaos?
Or do you think that our maths is as it is because it relies on (is contingent upon) the existence of the universe that it describes?
That said, it might be just as you describe, but you'll have to offer more than just confidence and wishful thinking. Perhaps a falsifiable test?