Dywyddyr,
jan said:
As far as you're concerned you have free will, right?
I'd like to think so.
But that could merely be the way I'm destined to be.
Seeing as you would like to think you have free will, but as
yet are undecided, means you have free will.
Okay, they include that it must be true to be knowledge.
No, they include (among other things)
truths.
Yet the evidence that it was fake must also have been there all along. If something is true it's true: regardless of belief.
We know it was fake, but our knowledge of it's fakery is not primariily based on the truth that it was fake.
But upon the full understanding of it's fakery, (which includes different aspects of knowledge) we can now conclude what the truth is.
That is how knowledge works.
Piltdown was never true. It was believed to be (erroneously).
You're right it was never true, but while it was believed to be true,
the belief was based on knowledge, albeit erronous, and second-hand.
Knowledge is not knowledge unless it's true.
In hindsight, yes, but without it, not necessarily.
jan said:
Can true knowledge of a thing be known without understanding that thing?
Which has what to do with the question?
By true knowledge, I mean perfect knowledge, omnicscience.
If the future is knowable, and we therefore, cannot have free-will, what is
that knowledge based on, given the correct definition of knowledge?
If we dance to the tune of that knowledge, and our every action is predestined by that knowledge, then why call it knowledge, or omniscience?
the knowledge flows from the reality: reality is the way it is and will, and can only, be, and knowledge is aware of that).
It can't be otherwise.
Knowledge comes from our relationship with reality, resulting in experience, and percieved through our senses. Perfect knowledge is knowing things as
they are. If God is God, then He knows things perfectly, as opposed to imperfectly. He would then be in a position to know future events without having to dictate it.
If you're claiming that "If it helps your choice to believe that God does not exist, or belief in God is illogical, therefore irrational, then so be it" was your answer then you didn't actually answer the question:
I see what you mean now.
One more time:
If it is known (i.e. TRUE) that I will do X then, regardless of whatever I tell myself about "choosing" I will, inevitably, do X. The "choice" will not exist (or ever exist) since the outcome of that choice was known and true before I made the "choice". I could not "decide" to do Y, or Z, of F or H because it was, even before I "thought about" which to do, true that I would do X.
You were quite right, I did sidestep this point. The reason being, it has the
same old assumptions, i.e, knowledge=truth, and, omniscience is based on
knowledge without undertstanding, and is actually a predestined set of rules with regard to living entities.
You seem to miss the point that we can choose that which is untrue, as in the case of Piltdown Man, which renders your point, knowledge = truth, and, we dance to that tune, moot. The fact is, we can change our mind through our own volition, to suit ourselves despite the truth, and this is the power of our free will.
I'm sure you understand that knowledge, we deem "the truth", has to
be based on something which relates to us.
So my question is, why is having perfect knowledge, any different?
It comes back, angain to:
if god knows you'regoing to pick A how can you pick B?
You pick A because you want to pick A, and the reasons for your wanting
to pick is the knowledge that God posesses.
The question posed is NOT about god being illogical, or irrational, it's about the incompatibility of god's omniscience AND free will.
One or the other of them must go.
According to your understanding.
But why do you insist on sticking with it?
You now have food for thought, if you want it.
jan.