There are different kinds of theism.
On the whole, they can be separated in two groups:
1. Those that either by doctrine, by practice, or both, espouse the consumption of meat (the Abrahamic religions).
2. Those that by doctrine and practice limit or prohibit meat-eating (in Hinduism).
Interestingly, there is the pattern that those in the first group espouse eternal damnation, and those in the second do not.
So at present you have at best a weak correlation between religious philosophies and meat-eating, but one that fails to take in to account the swathes of atheists who contain both vegetarian and meat-eaters. Either your hypothesis needs to build these in or it is flawed from the outset.
Is it also not far more likely, and thus rational, to assume that religious practitioners are either meat-eaters or vegetarian because their religion allows / disallows it, rather than the religious philosophy following from what they eat?
Imagine a scenario where:
- If you walk through door A then you
have to wear a hat.
- If you walk through door B then you don't have to, but you can if you want.
And now you are looking at the total population and asking if hat-wearing influences the choice of door you went through.
See the flaw? :shrug:
But the existence of vegetarian Christians / Muslims... hmmm, still a tricky one for you, isn't it?
If by "study" you mean "typical Western science study", then trying to explain the OP topic on its grounds is impossible from the onset, as such a study would not acknowledge the reality and relevance of religious application (since it would demand that such relevance yet be established).
First, there is no "Western science"... there is just science.
Secondly you propose a scientific hypothesis and now seem to say that it can not be tested by science, because science won't acknowledge some of the requirements? Rather begs the question of why you raised it in a science forum, no?
Thirdly - it
can be tested... you merely have to get a scientifically relevant sample of Christians and Muslims who eat meat and get them to refrain from such.
And then study how their religious philosophy changes.
Presumably if they still follow their Christian / Muslim doctrine during the test then not much will change, but this is only a guess from me.
It had to be made dead, and the eater participates in this directly by killing the animal themselves, or indirectly by paying someone else to do it.
Why do you make this assumption? As I suggested, you have ignored the animals that die from natural causes or from "natural" predators - with us merely enjoying their "natural" misfortune.
These are surely cases that allow the consumption of meat without the need to address any notion of mercy with regard the animal's killing?
And as such you still need to address the link between the act of consumption of the animal and the method of death (merciful or otherwise).
Surely you have made the experience that different kinds of substances that one ingests result in different states of mind. The more blatant example are drugs, which can alter a person's state of mind dramatically.
You may have also noticed that sweet milk rice gives rise to a different state of mind than a dish with hot chillies.
Yes, I am aware of these things... and these things are scientifically understood.
I can happily report that after eating meat I feel no difference with regard my religious philosophy. None of my friends do, either.
Further - if you are open, as you seem, to the idea that religious philosophy is driven by the chemicals within one's brain - who is to say which philosophy is correct - as they are determined by a non-religious cause (the chemicals in the brain/body).
It would be a major scientific breakthrough, mind, to prove that religious philosophy has zip to do with indoctrination and more to do with food intake.
But again - you STILL have to account in your hypothesis for those with atheist tendencies who have the same chemicals from eating / not-eating meat, as well as vegetarian Christians / Muslims.
Noticing these things, however, is a matter of how well-trained a person's sensitivities to food are, and this differs from one individual to another.
And how would you assess who is "sensitive" enough or not? Will it be a case of those that notice a change that induces them to change their philosophy ARE sensitive enough... and those that don't are clearly NOT sensitive?
Please... the more you go on about this the more you are demonstrating how tenuous is the initial hypothesis and likewise your grasp of science.