Photizo your post displays the religious-savy of a Southern Evangelist - with the uneducated claims to back it. Let's dissect all of its problems, then I will give a general overview answering scifes question.
The Jews as a group demonstrated a consistent pattern of disobedience and disbelief in their relationship with ****. Testimony to this can be found throughout the Old Testament especially in the [believing and, in most cases, obedient] Prophets.
If the Jews BCE disobedience landed them punishment, what's the punishment for Europeans animist savages? Your ancestors were far more ruthlessly unlawful - for example; most Jews could read - write - and understand law, most Greek lawyers were illiterate. The Jewish system was more just, and less corrupt.
Your very post displayed callous disregard for your supposed God's name, I think that's against one of your 10, right? Do you even know what these supposed 'disobediences' entailed? Well, in the second temple period I do - I'll give you a hint, they're not discussed in the prophets because there was no prophet at the time. If what caused the destruction of their temple was held upon the non-Jews, then we should expect a second flood any day now.
The majority of Israel's root indiscretions can be read of in the time of Judges, you know that 460 year period where there was only one book written?
The Jewish rejection of their Messiah [Cornerstone] was the capstone of that same pattern of unbelief.
Which part precisely did they reject? Was it the "Love your neighbor as yourself" which had been said by Beis Hillel oh...say...100 years before Jesus was supposedly born? Was it "remove the sty from your eye" that was said by the Rishonim compiled into a book later on from a named source who said it again...hundreds of years earlier? Was it his claim "None of your are righteous, not even one"? You know...the statement which was said by King Solomon (or David) in Psalms? Which statement did they clearly disobey?
The reasons for their disobedience and disbelief are revealed to any who care to learn them by Jews who DID believe and obey...Those reasons can be found/ferreted out through a study of their writings found in the New Testament.
Explain to me how a man who was born in one city in a country, when there were Jews all the way from France to Saudi Arabia...was supposed to be followed by them all? Also explain - how come Paul wrote down the New Testament and spread it a full 220 years after he supposedly died? That's right, for 220 years nobody thought anything or even knew of this man who was killed by the Romans. But miraculously he comes to Paul in his dreams - he writes it down, and suddenly every Jew was supposed to be held to it? Please, if the Messiah came to earth, don't you think God would have an effective way to inform them all...kind of like the one he described in....the prophets?
That said, redemption through their Messiah Jesus Christ is intended (and even now still available) for Jews and Gentiles alike, indeed this was The Father's plan all along.
It still blows my mind that a bunch of Europeans whose ancestors believed the Oak tree was their god all of the sudden feel that the "Old covenant" no longer applies to them. Let's say it magically doesn't - which part doesn't? Is the Sabbath no longer required? Is taking your Gods name in vein no longer binding? Is not believing in two gods still part of the deal? What about that sentence in the Tanakh that says "God is not a man"...does that not hold anymore either? You never did any of them - so...what's changed?
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The basic answer is he didn't fulfill any of the prescribed events. The Jews didn't return to Israel after he came, the second temple wasn't built, there wasn't unending peace in the world, there wasn't pure clarity given to every human being. You know that "...and no sword will cross Israels land again" sentence in your bible...do you feel as if that's true today? So which is wrong, your bible - or you?