Bells
Staff member
No, but someone has to.
Not particularly. For example, the legal limit in regards to driving is .05 (in Australia at least). For some, that can be one drink. For others it can be 2 or 3 drinks per hour.
Hence why incapacitation rules in regards to rape are a gray area and need to be evaluated on a case by case basis. Hence why the law itself states incapacitation but does not define the exact amount of alcohol that needs to be consumed to reach that limit. Why? Because the amount of drinks required to reach that limit is different for each individual. For example, it would probably take 2 drinks for me to get to that limit. 3 is complete incapacitation in regards to understanding anything or even spelling my name. A friend of mine can drink a whole bottle of wine and she's still in full ownership of all her faculties.
Key word there is 'interprets'. Rules about incapacitation and inability to grant consent is a grey area in the law, simply because it cannot be set down to a definite figure. And prior to the judiciary interpreting it, the case itself is almost vetted and the facts have to be gathered. If it shows that there was no crime committed, then it pretty much won't get to court unless the prosecutor deems that it should be or those involved decide to take it out of the criminal realm and into the civil realm.Bells, I appreciate the checks and balances. Do you have blind faith in the system? Isn't the foundation of a legal system that the executive branch makes the laws and the judicial branch interprets and enforces them? (In the US)
Does the term informed consent mean anything to you?Isn't it true that the law, as written, according to Asguard, explicitly defines rape as one party being presumed unable to give consent if they have consumed x amount of alcohol, even if they then actively participate in sex? And then the other is guilty of rape? In this case, the presumption of incapacitation is implied by a person's consumption of alcohol, so isn't it a valid question as to how much?
That you need to understand what you are consenting to? And again, the 'how much' depends on each individual. If witnesses say that the person was falling down, had difficulty understanding anything at all, had peed their pants (for example) because they couldn't figure out how to use the toilet, that is a pretty good indication that they were in no position to give consent. If the accused was stone cold sober and fully aware of this fact, or had plied the individual with the alcohol or drugs to get them to that state, again, it tends to speak for itself. I will not kid you when I say that rapes involving drugs and alcohol are a nightmare to prosecute. In some instances it is quite clear (for example, the guy who decided to tape it and it clearly showed a woman who was so drunk she couldn't even recognise where she was or who she was with). For example, a child can actively participate in a sexual act with an adult. Consent is deemed to not have been given because it is a child and said child would be unable to comprehend or understand what she was consenting to.
Aaarrrggghhhhhh..Once again, we agree. Back to who decides this...
FFS.. how many times has this been answered?:bawl:
Cases are investigated. If there is no case, there is no case.
Because in the majority of cases, there is not only enough evidence to prosecute the case, but in some, we find out that consent was valid and informed, that the individual was not that incapacitated.Why, in the majority of cases, does it not proceed past this point?
I shall reiterate a point you made earlier:What? How did you get here? This makes you look foolish, in the middle of an otherwise rational dialog. I stated that, yes it is black and white that people are responsible for their own actions, and you take that to "this obscene view that all feminists want to kill all men and blame everything on the male species, but the reality is vastly different. But yeah, you take those scissors and run with it."???? What is that? I don't even know how to respond to this....
You and your condescending feminist friends belittle women, and blame men for all problems.
Post 77
Post 77
You were saying? How exactly is that meant to be read as? We are not privy to your innermost thoughts. We can only respond to what you put down here in words. So pray tell, how exactly is that comment above meant to be interpreted?