Motor Daddy:
I realise I didn't respond to a few direct questions you put to me in an earlier post.
No. The definition of velocity is rate of change of distance. You can only get such a thing by assuming a reference frame prior to the calculation. A relative velocity, on the other hand, is a comparison between two velocities, as I explained earlier.
If there are two moving objects, A and B, then the relative velocity of B as measured by A will be equal to the velocity of B as measured in A's rest frame, but only because in A's rest frame the velocity of A is always zero.
I hope this clears up your confusion on this technical point. I suspect, however, that since you don't understand the basics of reference frames that everything I just wrote went wooshing right over your head.
Go figure.
In all inertial frames the laws of physics are the same.
To specify numbers for the velocities of A and B requires that we choose a reference frame, like I said. I just went to an arbitrary frame where the relative velocity was 20 m/s, as required. Anybody in that frame would be able to measure the relevant velocities using the usual Motor Daddy-approved measurement procedures.
This is true in any frame that sees the walls move. In a frame where the walls don't move (e.g. in the moving box), the light will hit all walls simultaneously, of course.
We can't hope to discuss your pendulum until we sort out your misunderstandings of reference frames. See you in nine months?
I realise I didn't respond to a few direct questions you put to me in an earlier post.
Motor Daddy said:The concept of a relative velocity doesn't require two velocities, the concept of relative velocity is one velocity! That one velocity is a measure of change in distance between two objects.
No. The definition of velocity is rate of change of distance. You can only get such a thing by assuming a reference frame prior to the calculation. A relative velocity, on the other hand, is a comparison between two velocities, as I explained earlier.
If there are two moving objects, A and B, then the relative velocity of B as measured by A will be equal to the velocity of B as measured in A's rest frame, but only because in A's rest frame the velocity of A is always zero.
I hope this clears up your confusion on this technical point. I suspect, however, that since you don't understand the basics of reference frames that everything I just wrote went wooshing right over your head.
Go figure.
You claim all frames have the same laws, do you not?
In all inertial frames the laws of physics are the same.
You have no point of reference to measure those -15 and 5 velocities. Explain to me how you determined those -15 and 5 velocities? What measurements were those speeds obtained from?
To specify numbers for the velocities of A and B requires that we choose a reference frame, like I said. I just went to an arbitrary frame where the relative velocity was 20 m/s, as required. Anybody in that frame would be able to measure the relevant velocities using the usual Motor Daddy-approved measurement procedures.
The light can not possibly hit the walls simultaneously if the walls move, that would mean the light traveled faster than the speed of light in one direction, and that can't happen, as the light travel time is exactly the same for all points on the expanding light sphere, and light travel time defines the meter, so it is LOCKED. There is no possible way to differentiate from that!!!
This is true in any frame that sees the walls move. In a frame where the walls don't move (e.g. in the moving box), the light will hit all walls simultaneously, of course.
So why does the pendulum only swing when the absolute velocity changes? I know, do you??
We can't hope to discuss your pendulum until we sort out your misunderstandings of reference frames. See you in nine months?