Somalia's Council of Islamic Courts

Which Khan?:)


Kublai Khan (1215-1294) - the last "Great Khan" of Mongolia ,who upheld "pax mongolia" in all the mongolian areas - after he died in 1294 there was no more control over the different subareas of Mongolia, actually some problems started while he was still alive - and in 1292 the Khan Ghazan of the Ilkhanate mongol region converted into Islam ( Ghazan had a christian mother and used to be a buddhist before he converted) .... islam later spread on.....

When Marco Polo visited Kublai Khan - the khan asked him for 100 christian missionaries so Mongolia could be converted into christianity .....

http://www.ywameurope.org/news/word/readWord.asp?word=57

http://www.greatitalians.com/MarcoPolo.htm

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghazan

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/islamisation
 
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Kublai Khan (1215-1294) - the last "Great Khan" of Mongolia ,who upheld "pax mongolia" in all the mongolian areas - after he died in 1294 there was no more control over the different subareas of Mongolia, actually some problems started while he was still alive - and in 1295 the Khan Ghazan of the Ilkhanate mongol region converted into Islam ( Mahmud had a christian mother and used to be a buddhist before he converted) .... islam later spread on.....

When Marco Polo visited Kublai Khan - the khan asked him for 100 christian missionaries so Mongolia could be converted into christianity .....

http://www.ywameurope.org/news/word/readWord.asp?word=57

http://www.greatitalians.com/MarcoPolo.htm

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ghazan

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/islamisation

So why are there non-Muslim Mongols outside Arabia (in fact in their countries of origin)? And hardly any in Arabia, which they conquered?

And why did the Mughal rule of 800 years not result in conversion of the Indians to Islam? Even though it was a conquered territory? And why didn't Mughals in India adopt Hinduism over the 800 years?
 
India: The invasions by Persians and Mongols were fought against Muslim kings from India (local Pashtuns of no royal background and descendents of Arab traders) India already had Islam during the lifetime of the Prophet.
This almost certainly would have been to secure trade ties between the two peoples. No one is going to lose out on trade to one’s neighboring competitors simply because of a new religion. If so then they wouldn’t be ruling because history would have seen them off long before.

The only other alternative answer is that there is something particularly insightful about Islam that would ensure many Indian conversions. Well, sure, maybe to Indonesians and Malay - but come on – India is the birth of religion! It is the oldest – pretty much all religious stories in the region go back to India (with the exception to some Egyptian). India had colonies in Arabia. India was the more advanced in that regards – probably in the world.

Making a few corrections to the Torah, itself a copy of stories leading right back to India, wouldn’t really be all that impressive – would it? Not to mention that Buddhism was a millennial old mature religion which had, by that time, soaked in the thinking of the best that Greek Philosophy had to offer.

Is there any other logical answer than trade ties?
If so I don’t see it.
What would it be?


And yet India is largely Hindu, especially in the regions where there were Mughal (or Mongol) kings. So why didn't Indians adopt Islam to the same extent. WHy did some Indians adopt it in the lifetime of the Prophet but hardly any during Mughal rule? And if India did not adopt it why did Indonesia and Malaysia?
Perhaps I’m wrong but India was eventually conquered. Wasn’t it? It'd probably pissed people right off that this new religion, no superior to their own way of thinking, was being promulgated over that of their own indigenous belief! Until Indians were completely conquered it would probably forever remain divisive in this regard.

As to Indonesia and Malaysia - they were hardly India’s equal in terms of cultural historical or religious significance. Islam very may well have been superior to their own stories?

Regardless, all in all, there were probably a lot more converts post-Mohammed but pre-invasion than during the life of Mohammed. As the religion established itself and it became clear that such was necessary to retain good trade relations.

Also, in all these places was Mohammed accepted as a Prophet because he was a General?

Was he "seen" as a Military Commander? Is that how he is remembered today? As a military commander?
During his lifetime probably both. I believe Aleaxander had some thoughts he was truly of the Gods. Maybe not. Mahammed seemed to. But he didn't write down he thoughts and the Qur'ans exact date of birth is unknown, as to exactly each member who wrote it - so it's hard so say. Anyway, postmortem I think people are no longer remembered as The General. Even General Mao was remembered, until recently, as more like a Dear Father. Never mind he wiped out 30 million people. My Chinese buddy said he and his family, who were interned for being PhDs in CHM used to pray to Mao before each meal… weird.

So no he would not have been remembered as a General. More as a Father figure and leader. That is the way it usually goes anyway.


Islam in China:
I like that China made it so that women are leaders in the Islamic faith. Ironically that’s a direct effect of Communism and a secondary halo effect of Xians influence on Chinese thinking. At least Xians did one thing well anyway.

That said, 20 million people after 1400 years is really a pittance. Isn’t it? I think it’s fair to say Islamic philosophy never really took hold in China. Now the real question is why in India and not in China?

Also, if Islam is superior to Eastern thought – how so? What ideas or notions are philosophically or intellectually superior? People need to hear something and think on it. What are those something’s? I can tell you “The is one God and Mohammed is his Prophet” is not going to cut the mustard on this front!


Interesting questions though . . . . . huh?

Michael
 
So why are there non-Muslim Mongols outside Arabia (in fact in their countries of origin)?


Ghazan only ruled over the Ilkhanate region - he was not "Great Khan" and could not spread islam in the whole of Mongolia ...only in the Ilkhanate region (Persia) ...
 
And why did the Mughal rule of 800 years not result in conversion of the Indians to Islam?

The grand moghul of northern India was a muslim - some indians in the north were converted , but many resisted .....there are still hindues there ...
The strenght of the Mughal never extended to the south of India ....
 
Ghazan only ruled over the Ilkhanate region - he was not "Great Khan" and could not spread islam in the whole of Mongolia ...only in the Ilkhanate region (Persia) ...

So the Mongols spread Islam in Persia?:)

The grand moghul of northern India was a muslim - some indians in the north were converted , but many resisted .....there are still hindues there ...
The strenght of the Mughal never extended to the south of India ....

Most of North India (almost all of it save for pockets in Delhi, Lucknow, Ajmer) is Hindu.

South India has more Muslims.:)
 
Oh you know , Sam ...
If you convert away from Islam other muslims will kill you ....so they didn´t dare .....:p

Really?:)

The Internet site aljazeera.net published an interview with Ahmad Al Qataani أحمد القطعاني An important Islamic cleric who said: “In every hour, 667 Muslims convert to Christianity. Everyday, 16,000 Muslims convert to Christianity. Ever year, 6 million Muslims convert to Christianity."
 
embraced Islam because they wanted a new religious system that gave women the divorce, a share in their wealth and the right to refuse marriage?
Sarcasm to Sputnik noted, the idea that woman had such rights is not new. Mohammed’s own wife, pre-Islam was (or so I thought) – a very powerful Arab woman? It doesn’t really jive with the notion that Arabs killed their females relatives and women were treated like shit. I’ve always wondered if that wasn’t a bit of propaganda and frankly still think so.

Anyway, a Roman woman who was not remarried could own property and basically was free to do as she liked in Roma. Probably, at the time, these were some of the most free women on the planet Earth.

Regardless, did women ever get these rights in a typical Islamic country? What of the year 2000? That, to me, is the measure.

As Islamic women did not get these rights – what does that say to you about the system of Islam?


[also not Mohammed taking umpteen wife’s and one we would today consider a child – certainly didn’t set a good precedence. I mean the age of consent in Rome was 18 and one could legally have one wife]

A system that " from the first denounced aristocratic privilege, rejected hierarchy, and adopted a formula of the career open to the talents"
Again, the Greeks, and Romans after them, removed their aristocratic rulers of heredity and formed a Democracy and a Republic.

And again, while the Greeks and Romans went about business for hundreds of years as such, did Islamic countries ever implement these freedoms?

If not what does that mean to you? What does it imply about Islam?

That "condemned practices of the Arabs such as female infanticide, exploitation of the poor, usury, murder, false contracts, fornication, adultery, and theft. [3] He states that Muhammad's "insistence that each person was personally accountable not to tribal customary law but to an overriding divine law shook the very foundations of Arabian society... Muhammad proclaimed a sweeping program of religious and social reform that affected religious belief and practices, business contracts and practices, male-female and family relations.""
Perhaps this had an effect on Arab society – but outside of these nomadic peoples, well, frankly the world was a different place – one full of rules of law and tradition. Greeks and Romans could Democratically change the Law.


Regardless, we must agree that these Ideals didn’t work in Islamic countries. The Islamic system you talk about, if it ever even worked at all, broke down immediately.


Even today, compare Singapore with Malaysia and Indonesia.
Whom are the more free?

I think you would agree in terms of society, The Communism Manifesto (an example I like to use) is much more thought out in terms of social responsibility when compared to Islam societal rules.
It was VERY fair. There is no room for Slavery or multiple wives or even a religious hierarchy.
People are for the betterment of the People.
It didn’t work either.

Do you think Communism is a good system?
Why or Why not?


Michael
 
PS memes are a fantasy. But why would his descendants contract the meme of a people they overpowered?
Well, their more a definiton for ideas that spread. Before the word meme we said idea but that doens't sell many books :)

No really, it is an interesting book. I have it. Anything that allows one to take a crack at something from a different angle is a good thing to explore.
 
Sorry could you quote which post you are answering?

It was post number 28 .....
First Persia was islamised , but after the mongols conquered it there was a period where muslims were brutally persecuted - then in 1292 Persia was reislamised under the mongols - and it then spread into the middleeast and northern India ............The Mughals had mongol ancestors .....
 
I was actually joking , Sam ...:)
Except sometimes fanatic muslims have been known to say that ....

The death sentence for apostasy is one of the laws in the 1400 years of Islamic studies by jurists. It is not a part of the religion but a part of the law created by a Muslim jurist (as all laws in Fiqh are) as one of the means of regulating civil society and maintaining local demographic majority. There was no law against migration though so people were always free to leave if they wished to convert.

Plus most of the laws in Muslim jurisprudence are so much hoopla, since

1. there is no single punishment for any crime but a range of possible punishments ranging from most liberal to most conservative

2. there is no compulsion for any Muslim government to follow any of these laws, there are merely legal opinions offered by legal scholars down the ages.

3. Most governments pick and choose laws based on type of government rather than the religion of the people.
 
It was post number 28 .....
First Persia was islamised , but after the mongols conquered it there was a period where muslims were brutally persecuted - then in 1292 Persia was reislamised ........

Thats interesting, I haven't looked at this stuff in such depth.

Do you know why Persia was re-Islamised? And why most of them are Shiites?
 
The death sentence for apostasy is one of the laws in the 1400 years of Islamic studies by jurists. It is not a part of the religion but a part of the law created by a Muslim jurist (as all laws in Fiqh are) as one of the means of regulating civil society and maintaining local demographic majority. There was no law against migration though so people were always free to leave if they wished to convert.

Plus most of the laws in Muslim jurisprudence are so much hoopla, since

1. there is no single punishment for any crime but a range of possible punishments ranging from most liberal to most conservative

2. there is no compulsion for any Muslim government to follow any of these laws, there are merely legal opinions offered by legal scholars down the ages.

3. Most governments pick and choose laws based on type of government rather than the religion of the people.


I am glad that it is not in the religion .......:)
 
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