Struggling to think of an answer which doesn't admit to either trolling or ego stroking?
I didn’t want to impose my questions on Masterov’s thread but my understanding of the responses from Tach and rpenner over there is that for both the SR postulates to be true in SR, the point of origin of an event like the flash of a spherical light wave front must move with the inertial frame along the axis of motion relative to all other inertial frames. This makes the physics the same in all frames and the math transforms a light sphere in one frame to a concentric light sphere in all frames. Do I have this straight?
Is it correct to say that the Doppler effect one would observe with sound waves where the frequency of the sound changes as the point of origin passes is also observed with light waves via the red and blue shifting, but the shape of the sound wave would still be spherical in all frames just like the spherical concentric light wave fronts?
I am deluded enough to believe I understand the math and am simply visualizing how it portrays the SR effect in different frames. You can disparage me for that delusion and I won't take offense.The centre of the sphere is what moves with the chosen reference frame, and the definition of that centre will vary between different frames. It's not just about time dilation and space contraction, but about the relativity of simultaneity and time-ordering as well. For more info, please learn how to compute Lorentz transformations.
One small point about the spherical sound wave and an observer in motion relative to it. If that spherical wave could be observed in its full expanding volume by a moving observer, would it appear to be an oblate spheroid from his perspective?The sound isn't traveling at light speed, so no.
It is a legitimate question that some one should be able confirm and put this issue behind for me. Would an object that has a fixed volume like a basket ball or even an expanding spherical sound wave expanding at the speed of sound (but not a light wave front expanding at the speed of light as CptBork pointed out) that is spherical in one observers frame (the rest frame) would appear as an oblate spheroid when viewed by an observer in motion relative to that frame.I am deluded enough to believe I understand the math and am simply visualizing how it portrays the SR effect in different frames. You can disparage me for that delusion and I won't take offense.
One small point about the spherical sound wave and an observer in motion relative to it. If that spherical wave could be observed in its full expanding volume by a moving observer, would it appear to be an oblate spheroid from his perspective?
A sphere of expanding light is a sphere in all inertial frames.
That statement is not in accordance with the theory of relativity.
It is in accordance with special relativity. Look for threads between Jack_ and I, as he claimed it was some internal contradiction of SR that it predicted such a thing. I explained to him why it is not.That statement is not in accordance with the theory of relativity.
You can NOT length contract in one direction (the x axis) and not the other direction (y, and z axis) and still have a sphere. The measure of distance from the center of the sphere to the outer edge of the sphere is timeless, ie, the only way the outer edge of the sphere is a distance away from the center of the sphere is if the motion has already occurred in the past. There is no duration at that point, you are looking at a record of what ALREADY HAPPENED in time. There is no length contraction, and there is no time dilation, because there is no time interval at that point. It is a result! It's like looking at the results of a 1/4 mile car race. The race already occurred in the past, there is no time interval while looking at the results of a race that already occurred.
Someone correct me if I'm wrong but that is saying that the math works and not that it corresponds precisely to reality.
Also, I have a question about the math. Would it be appropriate to refer to Minkowski spacetime as the coordinate system where the math works perfectly?
Does it work just as well in flat spacetime and in curved spacetime, or does that question even make any sense?
Is flat spacetime the same as 3-D space plus time in Euclidean coordinates.
So I would have been correct if I had said that the math works but doesn't correspond precisely to reality, it corresponds to reality within the limits of experimental uncertainty? I'll gladly use that phrasing.Consider yourself corrected. Every experimental test devised exactly agrees (within experimental uncertainty) with the mathematical predictions of relativity.
So you are saying the Euclidean flat space has some baggage when it comes to today's consensus theories and it cannot be used to produce results that are as accurate as today's theories? I would probably agree with that even though I not sure what the baggage is, lol.I'm actually going to answer this...
Lets consider flat space in Cartesian coordinates. Euclidean flat space is where the metric tensor has signature $$(+,+,+,\ldots,+ )$$. i.e. it loos something like this: $$ ds^2 = dx^2 + dy^2 + dz^2 + \ldots$$. Minkowski signature space has signature $$(-,+,+,\ldots,+ )$$ where the minus sign is the time direction. The metric tensor is $$ ds^2 = -dt^2 + dx^2 + dy^2 + dz^2 + \ldots$$. Some people like to use the opposite signature $$(+,-,-,\ldots,- )$$ so the metric tensor is $$ ds^2 = dt^2 - dx^2 - dy^2 - dz^2 - \ldots$$ but really it's just convention.
So I would have been correct if I had said that the math works but doesn't correspond precisely to reality, it corresponds to reality within the limits of experimental uncertainty? I'll gladly use that phrasing.
Mostly true but my argument is that there could be physical causes for the effects that are mathematically accounted for in GR and if that were the case then research and study would be applied. My statement was intellectually honest to that extent.This is your choice to be intellectually dishonest, since without experimental disagreement there is no evidence for the proposition that the math doesn't correspond precisely to reality. Therefore your speculations are wholly unfounded and you are not beginning to address reality.
I appreciate your perspective and certainly give you the medal for having a grasp on the math and science. I'm a pea brain and so when you point out that there is math behind all the taught physics I get the impression that I have missed something and have been wrong for all these years about the inconsistencies in the the math as it is taught when we quantify the macro and the micro observations. Also I must be missing where the math gives us the physics to explain the presence of matter, the physical cause for action at a distance and the cause of the Big Bang. Being a pea brain and missing all that in the math and physics that you say has no wiggle room is what I base my conclusion on that I am a deluded pea brain. I think we might be on the same page on that conclusion.The taught laws of physics, as we now have them, are bare mathematical expressions of the experimentally perfect symmetries of reality. There is, as of yet, no wiggle room in physical observations to prefer any mechanism or "underlying reality" to the bare observed symmetries. Therefore any talk of "causes" are fact-free speculation, and only scientific to the extent that one develops the mathematics of ones speculative reality closer to the point where a confrontation between hypothesis and observation may be achieved. Where, sir, are your mathematics?