It all depends on how you characterize the question. If you see faith as being inherently quantitative, then atheism - as an extreme of the distribution (and I cheekily note even Dawkins holds out a distribution as an example in The God Delusion) then atheism must hold some arbitrary place p(x) in that distribution f(x) = p(x)d(x). (I can't make the curvy sign in the message box.)
Now if, instead, you categorize all atheism as a philosophy independent of all theistic belief, then you might argue it was not a belief, but a natural state. I suppose I will argue against that empirically since lots of societies have some kind of theism at some kind of level, whether it's just throwing spears and the like in someone's grave or the like.
Then again, this point has been gone over about a million times at SF, and the ground seems a little trampled.
Now if, instead, you categorize all atheism as a philosophy independent of all theistic belief, then you might argue it was not a belief, but a natural state. I suppose I will argue against that empirically since lots of societies have some kind of theism at some kind of level, whether it's just throwing spears and the like in someone's grave or the like.
Then again, this point has been gone over about a million times at SF, and the ground seems a little trampled.