You seem to be suggesting that parents of girls should pay older men to have sex with their daughters. This sounds like reverse prostitution. How do you justify it?
What I am suggesting is that one shouldn't be allowed to have sex with a very young female unless her parents are willing to commit very well to taking care of any offspring that may arise in the coming years from such sex. A better analogy than "reverse prostitution" would be marriage, where the male commits to taking care of any offspring that may be produced. (The practice of common-law marriage obfuscates the purpose of marriage. Females should have a right to have a child by a male without requiring commitment of him, and it is better that non-commitment be the default state than commitment be the default state, inasmuch as marriage ceremonies and registrations are preferable to "she's my mistress" ceremonies--who's a mistress to whom should not be a matter of public knowledge. I believe in France, there is no default marriage, and marriage is more completely considered there as a commitment ceremony, as it should be.) So by giving a dowry the parents commit to taking care of offspring of their daughter much as a man commits in marriage (especially in France) to take care of offspring from a wife.
On another point, why do you concentrate on girls throughout your post, whilst ignoring the issues as they apply to boys? Are you not concerned about boys?
Boys are a separate matter. I of course have no physical attraction to boys, and males sodomizing boys is just as disgusting and evil as males sodomizing females. As for boys having sex at a young age with females, it really is a separate issue. My opinion is that boys should be allowed to have sex with women who want such sex, but the situation is different. Good women have a moderate preference for mating with younger males because it is slightly more moral for them to mate with younger males. The offspring of an older woman and a young male will on account of sperm selection tend to be slightly better morally than would be the case if he were her own age. The tendency for older females to prefer young males is driven by the morality of the older female. Nymphetal philokalia, on the other hand, is stronger, and is driven by pleasure in the girl more than by moral sentiment. I.e., a girl mating with a good male while she is young selects via sperm selection for his most fit (i.e., talented) genetic material, which significantly increases her pleasure. "Girls just want to have fun," as the song goes (a simplification, of course). At any rate, I don't want to discuss boy-woman sex here, since really it is a different phenomenon that should be discussed in a separate thread. I discuss it in my book, though, if you're interested.
If girls can inherently tell a "good male" from a "bad male", then how can they be deceived by the bad males?
That is the key point, you won't understand my argument if you don't understand that morality is easier to judge than fitness (by which I mean an ability to succeed in an evolutionary sense--talent essentially). Accordingly, girls are not significantly deceived about the morality of particular men, but about the fitness of particular men. But if a male does have moral character, then it is very unlikely that he will be deceptive about his fitness or anything else. So if a girl considers a male moral, then she knows pretty well she isn't being deceived about his abilities. But if she considers him immoral, then it's anybody's guess whether she is being deceived about his fitness--accordingly, she won't be at all certain whether she is being deceived into thinking him more fit and desirable then he is. Some bad males deceive often and effectively, and some bad males deceive rarely and poorly, so it's not just like a girl could know well how much she is being deceived and compensate accordingly. A tendency toward deception that is recognized as such isn't very deceptive.
The basic reason that (moral) character is comparatively easy to judge is that those who deceive in mating about character can only get extra offspring by people who were sufficiently insensitive as to be easily deceived. There is a strong correlation between good moral character and sensitivity toward the character of others. So character is comparatively easy to judge by judging sensitivity toward one's own character, and of course one's own character is something that is directly observable by oneself.
If this is the crux of your argument, you'll need to explain:
1. Why young girls would select different sperm than older girls.
2. Why good males have better sperm.
3. How young girls can tell whose sperm is better.
4. Why a pre-pubescent girl would be selecting for sperm anyway, when she is physically incapable of breeding.
1. It is known that the histology of the cervix of a young female is markedly different from that of an older female. I forgot where I read this, but I recall reading that scientists believe that these histological differences make younger females more susceptible to certain types of venereal disease. As I mentioned in my last post, it's not really known for sure how important sperm selection of haploid traits (intra-ejaculate sperm selection) really is, but then as the saying goes, absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. Personally, I think that females have the ability to control via randomizing how much intra-ejaculate sperm competition occurs.
2. It's not that good males have more fit sperm, it's that those sperm of good males that are likely to succeed in fertilizing a young female are likely to code for diploid characteristics that are more fit than those of a typical sperm of the male. If a female has sex with a good male when young, her youth suggests that she is so certain as to his desirability that she won't gain significantly by waiting. Young females will be more uncertain about a good male's level of fitness than an older female would; however, the uncertainty arises mostly from uncertainties within herself and not from uncertainties as to his level of deceptiveness. On the other hand, if morally bad genetic material is loved to an unusual degree by young females, this genetic material likely codes for deceptive abilities more than for the abilities that would especially attract an older female more capable of recognizing them. In other words, this genetic material codes better for the (comparatively unimpressive) ability to deceive young females than for the ability to impress older females. It is rather tricky logically, for you might say that if bad females are more hesitant to be deceived when young, isn't an ability to deceive young females impressive? The answer is no, because young females can only control their ability to be deceived by being averse to mating bad males, which is what I am trying to assert. In other words, (I'm speaking off the cuff here somewhat) bad females are more hesitant to mate with bad males than would be the case if they were equally indifferent to being deceived as older females, but they are not so hesitant to mate with bad males that the tendency of bad male genetic material to mate with young females is impressive. I suppose to be more precisely exact a good approach would be to quantify things and try to derive relations between various differentials or derivatives, as one does when trying to maximize things in calculus; but my arguments are not quite at that exactness level yet, nor do I anytime soon wish to undertake such a task, if ever. Probability and statistics considerations are also probably relevant.
3. It's quite simple. Girls know that sperm from good males is more likely to code for goodness (in diploid individuals created from the sperm) than sperm in bad males. True, girls like to favor in a man the sperm having the most good genetic material, which is why I think a girl (as opposed to a woman) is especially pleased when a male having sex with her has holy emotion. But that is another matter. Basically, I think holiness is an emotion the male feels to discourage crossover during spermatogenesis, which discouragement tends to reward the female, as good males are more likely to want to do.
4. Mostly nymphetal philokalia involves girls who have reached adolescence. But there is one reason even sex with pre-adolescent girls might be considered appropriate--lesbianism. Indeed, a girl so young as to be infertile might not gain from sperm selection that occurs by having sex with her (she can't get pregnant after all); however a female that gets sperm that moves into her after it has capacitated inside the very young female can be rewarded by the sperm selection that occurs in the very young female. But admittedly, this is a pretty unique case, so this sort of thing should only be considered appropriate if there is strong evidence that the the girl's affection is strong, natural and reasonable (e.g., because the girl's parents are very amenable to her behaving thus, as evidenced by their willingness to give a dowry). Similarly, for other reasons too complex for this post, it is important that any woman involved in such lesbian sex should be well-loved by the male if she is fully adult.
What addictive qualities?
I think that semen contains addictive chemicals that screw-up those who absorb them in the digestive system, as happens during sodomy (by which I mean behavior that puts semen into the digestive system). See my post in Homosexuality, What's the big deal,
http://www.sciforums.com/showthread.php?s=&threadid=16666 , another thread in this forum, for details.
Finally, I don't know where you are going by throwing the word "pedophile" everywhere. I think girls are sexy, that it is important that girls should more be allowed to have sex when they want it , and that such sex is not only innocuous but plays an important role in the evolution of moral goodness. I don't see where I am being unclear, so why slap a label on my beliefs? You say that you don't think it important to distinguish sodomy from sex, but you sure act as though rhetorically it is important for you to identify me with sodomizers by calling me "pedophile" everywhere, being derived as it is from the Latin word for child rather than girl (like I said, I do not in any way find boys sexy). Personally, I think the whole significance of labelling is that sodomy really is a black-and-white phenomenon, a mere question of one hole vs. another hole, and so since people know intuitively on a paranoid level sodomy is to be viewed as black-and-white, and since people are more inclusive than they should be about what constitutes sodomy, people find too comfortable viewing non-sodomy issues with the same black-and-whiteness as is appropriate for the very simple sodomy issue. Age of consent issues really are very complex and not black-and-white. But even if you don't admit my explanation for why labelling is wrong, perhaps you will admit that labelling is inappropriate for other reasons. In America, e.g., if you believe that capitalism is inefficient in pricing items with low marginal cost and high initial cost at marginal cost, i.e., if you hate copyrights, you are called socialist, which is identified with communist, which is identified with Stalinist. Does that seem wrong? Please don't call me pedophile. After all, I am the world's leading anti-sodomy theorist. At least I believe I'm the only person with a reasonable (non-religious based) anti-sodomy web page, which over the years has gotten several thousand hits.
Basically, it seems to me there are two main issues in my argument that could fail. One, is it true that girls usually have the ability to judge the moral worth of a male? Two, can and does the relevant sperm selection occur? I think that girls typically can judge sufficiently well the moral worth of a male at about age 10 or so; I'm not saying that there is no age so young that girls can't judge morality well, just that it is a fairly young age. And of course, if society were more rapacious and girls less well protected from dangers such as drugs, girls would more often make moral judgment mistakes, which would make higher ages of consent more appropriate. It is relevant, I think, that the age of consent I suggest is roughly what nature suggests, inasmuch as it is approximately the age at which girls get fertile.
You misunderstand age of consent laws. They are not there to prevent "corruption" of girls. They are there to protect young people from being forced into acts which they may, with greater understanding, later regret.
I am not sure I agree with this. Corruption is a more politically colorful topic. But I fail to see why it is important in deciding whether a law is appropriate to know the motivations of the politicians who wrote it.