Greek->Islamic->Western; unless you know about a different history and would like to tell everyone?
Greco-Roman is Western, so it seems you have really written this: Western -> Islam -> Western.
Or, Geographic location -> Religious Superstition -> Geographic location.
:bugeye:
Not to mention nothing is so linear and you're discounting all the civilizatiosn before Greece, namely Egypt! and what of the Chinese and Indians?!
To be consistent maybe you should write:
Polytheistic Egyptian Pantheon -> Polytheistic Greek Pantheon + Polytheistic Roman Pantheon -> Christianity + Roman Pantheon -> Islam + Polytheistic Hindu Pantheon + Polytheistic Chinese Pantheon + Polytheistic European Pantheons -> Christianity.
OR
Egypt -> Europe -> Middle East -> Europe.
None of which really is true.
I’m going to summarize an earlier post from a different thread:
This seems to be the Muslim’s very biased point of view: Without “Islam” Europeans would never have entered the Renaissance.
This is an odd statement to make: "Islam" sparked the renaissance by preserving the polytheistic Greek Philosophies? Seems a sad attempt to me? No? I mean, if the Greeks and Romans were able to build their civilization from the ground up with out any help from “Islam” surely they could do so again. Especially considering they didn’t turn into backwards barbarians. They still had math, literature, art, wine etc… (Florence and Venice). Not to mention, is Islam was so great, why weren’t Muslim flying to the moon? Building TV’s? Computers? Where’s the great “Islamic” Renaissance?
It doesn’t exist for the exact reasons Bricoleur posted.
Byzantine Lands were conquered by Arabs. Egyptian and Syrian monasteries did contain many Greek and Roman texts. Muslims did attain some of these texts - as
spoils of war.
Is this how "Islam" preserved Greek texts? As spoils of Holy war?
The
Cambridge History of Later Medieval Philosophy
Bernard Dod writes '
a tenacious legend that the West learnt its Aristotle via translations from the Arabic, but the fact is the West only turned to Arabic in default of the more intelligible Greek-Latin ones'
Frederick Copleston writes in
A History of Philosophy,) that '
it is a mistake to imagine that the Latin scholastics were entirely dependent upon translations from Arabic or even that translation from the Arabic always preceded translation from the Greek.' 'translation from the Greek generally preceded translation from the Arabic.'
In
A History of Twelfth—Century Western Philosophy Peter Dronke writes
'most of the works of Aristotle...were translated directly from the Greek, and only exceptionally by way of an Arabic intermediary.'
In The
Cambridge Companion to Arabic Philosophy:
'The Republic of Plato, though translated into Arabic, was not subsequently translated into Latin.' This should be noted that this is the
only work of Plato translated directly into Arabic and that it did
not make its way back to the West.
Lets revisit 14th -16th century in Florence, Siena, Venice. Lets think about art, dance and sculptor.
1) How did “Islam influence Leonardo da Vinci? His painting style is nothing like that of even the Middle East.
2) How about Michelangelo Buonarroti? Take “David” for example. His work would have been heresy in the Middle East. How then was he influenced? Muslims, like Xians at one point, became so fanatical they banned human figure in art.
3) Ballet emerged in Italy during the 15th century. How is this a product of Islam?
4) Assuming there was a William Shakespeare in 15-1600s England. How was he influenced by Islam?
Take a long view of the Middle East. The great advancements made from the times of the Egyptians through to the Romans on the Western part of the ME. Now compare this with the achievements made under Islamic Theocracy. You’ll find the pace actually
SLOWS. The eastern Mediterranean cities saw a complete collapse of their economies and return to subsistence farming. Much know how in the arts (like sculpting) was lost - forever. The greatest advancements under Islamic rule were made the
FURTHER away from Islam one got – mainly in European SPAIN and during a time referred to as the
Jewish Golden Age.
We know that progress continued in Europe after Christendom and monotheocracy. But it was slow. It was hindered. I see no difference under Middle East theocratic Islam - especially by the 14th century. Islam (just like Xianity) in the end, retarded civil advancement. Oh advancement continued - just at a much slower pace until it is so slow we call it stagnate. And, I’d hardly credit the initial surge of productivity in the 700s to “Islam”. Why not credit the Chinese golden age to Shamanism – I mean, it occurred post-their crushing defeat (80 million dead) by the Mongolians. Shamanism was Mongolian religion. Mongolian ruled China. Heh, must be Shamanism sparked the Chinese Golden Age. Luckily it only cost the lives of 80 million Chinese. Do you see my point?
Anyway, this all goes back to the main point. Of teacing people the words "Islamic" Golden Age and repeating it over and over is (a) wrong and (b) really propaganda. I've met a number of Communist Chinese who'd credit BlueRay DVD's to China,
because Japan owes everything to China. I see "Islamic" Golden Age as Islamic Communist Propaganda.
Michael