I think LG's use of the word knowingly is important because when someone consciously makes the decision to convert another person, it implies that premeditation & motive existed prior to the conversion. IOW's a deliberate act is perpetrated upon another person. Now whether you think that's criminal or not is the question.
the problem is whether or not we think something is criminal is inconsequential; the "law" decides what is criminal. and it is the proper legal sense which you intend, correct?
I could take it a step further and ask if violating the rights of an individual is a criminal act. Does a person have the right to decide their religious destiny without interference from religion, as in Hapsburg's case? Does a religious organization or a member of that group have the right to indoctrinate as many people into their fold as possible?
you must first demonstrate that "indoctrination" is a "violation of rights."
as far as the u.s. (where i'm stuck at the moment) is concerned, there is no crime. of course, the rest of the world doesn't matter anyways, for they hate "us." they hate "us" for our freedom. they're freedom-haters. (no crime there, right?)