Provide the contemporary evidence of the Talmud having been written during the lifetime of Yhashua and that it specifically mentions him.
The tradition of a written Talmud did not begin until about 200CE, long after the time when Jesus is said to have lived. When the Second Temple was destroyed ca 70CE, the Jews lost their center of scholarship. As time wore on, they became uncomfortable with the tradition of rabbis arguing the points of their religion and culture orally, so the tradition of writing them down eventually came about.
There's contemporary evidence of various Egyptian Pharaohs, Roman Emperors, Chinese Emperors, Persian Emperors, etc.... No, there are no photos, but there are statues. There are, at times, records of birth. None of this exits for Moses, Jesus or Mohammad which strongly suggests these people did not actually exist. More likely, like Hercules or Zeus, they're just myths.
As I noted in a previous post, it is
unremarkable for no record of a normal flesh-and-blood human being, who lived in the era before printing, to exist more than a thousand years later, especially if he lived in a region noted for tumultuous discontinuities in government.
Therefore, it's possible that Mohammed existed. I'm not going to accuse anyone who believes that he did of being deluded. The supernatural aspects of his life can easily be embellishments added to "make a good story better," as we Americans put it.
But supernatural embellishments are not merely accretions to Jesus's biography,
they are the essence of it. If he did not actually rise from the dead, then there's no point in perpetuating his legend!
As for Moses... As I've noted in other discussions, the entire story of the "bondage in Egypt" and the "wandering in the desert" is now regarded with intense skepticism. It's much more likely that the Jews in Egypt were simply what today we call "guest workers," recruited by the Pharaoh's managers to keep a project on schedule, paid whatever was considered a fair wage by despotic rulers in those days, and dismissed when the project was completed. Moses is a part of that exaggerated story and, like Jesus, supernatural embellishments are the meat-and-potatoes of his biography too. We don't doubt Moses's existence because we can't find his chiseled-in-stone birth certificate; we doubt it because everything that is written about that existence invokes the Rule of Laplace: Extraordinary assertions must be supported by extraordinary evidence before we are obliged to treat them with respect.
Do you mean Jesus or Yashua.
The original Hebrew name is
יְהוֹשֻׁעַ , pronounced Ye-ho-shu-ah. It means "Yahweh delivers/rescues."
The Greeks transcribed this name as
Ἰησοῦς, transliterated Iesous and pronounced ye-SOOS. In Greek it's impossible to have an H in the middle of the word, so it vanished. Greek also lacks the phoneme we write as SH, so they changed it to S. I'm not quite sure why they added the S to the end of the name; perhaps to conform to the grammatical rules of their language.
The Romans were already familiar with the name Yehoshuah. In vernacular speech the first H had already been elided so it became Yoshuah. The Romans wrote this as Joshua, since they used Y to transliterate Greek
ypsilon, an umlauted vowel, whereas their J was the equivalent of our Y.
I would have expected the Romans to use their own name Joshua. But for reasons I don't understand, they borrowed the Greek equivalent ye-SOOS, which they spelled phonetically as Jesus. Notice that in modern Spanish the accent is still on the second syllable. We anglophones moved the accent to the first syllable because: A) The coincidental ending
-us makes it look like a normal Latin name and Latin names are not accented on the last syllable; and B) English is a Germanic language and we have a strong tendency to accent words on the first syllable.
Aramaic was the common language of the Middle East in biblical times (and for almost two thousand years after). Aramaic is a Semitic language, closely related to Hebrew and Arabic, and the Aramaic version of this name is Yeshua.
So to answer your question: Jesus, Iesous, Joshua, Yeshua and Yehoshuah are all different renderings of the same name in various languages.
What do you mean by Jesus myth ?
All of the extraordinary events in his life, which are unsupported by extraordinary evidence and therefore put us under no obligation to treat them with respect: the virgin birth, the walking on water, the loaves and the fishes, the resurrection, etc. The rude word for this kind of stuff is
bullshit, but a more polite way to refer to it is
a myth. This confers to it much more respect than it deserves, but still rejects all claims that it is literally true.
Myths are metaphors, and as scholars are quick to point out, a metaphor lies halfway between a truth and a lie.
What preposterous fairytale do you mean ?
The whole Bible. It is one long series of extraordinary assertions for which there is... not just
no extraordinary evidence, but
no respectable evidence of any kind at all!
Sure, it contains bits of factual history, but the majority of it is metaphors, or simply fiction created by the storytellers of the various eras.