How did Noah fit all those animals on the ark?

Because no mention of a "Messiah," "Son of God," or "Redeemer is made." This verse could just as easily be referring to Mohammad.
 
Joshua was a Prophet who came not to long after Moses. But again it could have been referring to any of the many prophets who came after Moses.
 
So it could be "any of many prophets," therefore, one would never know of whom it was actually speaking, seems like a waste.

Give us your educated guess regarding which prophet you think it's talking about.
 
IAC, why is there no mention of the terms "Son of God," "God incarnated," "Messiah," "Redeemer," "Cruxifiction," or "sacrifice for all of mankind" mentioned by Moses at all?
 
LOL. Crawfishing again, are we?

The term is "Immanuel," not "Emmanuel" by the way.

The term Immanuel appears in the OT 2 times, both of which are in the book of Isaiah, NOT GENESIS THROUGH DEUTERONOMY.

This discussion applies solely to the writing of MOSES, since Jesus said "Moses wrote of me."

Impressive IAC. Try again.
 
NDS said:
Photizo,

Out of the 8,000 plus verses of Genesis through Dueteronomy, you have pulled out FOUR weak, vague, supposed "prophesies" of Jesus.

When in fact, the four weak verses you have provided do nothing to support your case as I have clearly pointed out in the previous post.

The "Prophet" mentioned in Deuteronomy was much more likely referring to Joshua than to Jesus, and many Christians will tell you this who understand the OT, and not simply claim to.

You are telling me that out of 8,000 plus verses allegedly written by Moses, you cannot give me ONE verse which prophesizes a "Son of God," a "Redeemer," or a "Saviour"?

That is pretty ridiculous my friend.
Click to expand...

I've already told you, feel free to interpret those passages anyway you choose...you asked me a question, I gave you my answer, along with my understanding as to the 'why' behind the quite obvious vagueness of God's earliest intimations respecting The Messiah/Redeemer.

As our interpretations differ with respect to God's Word, so too they differ wrt to our definition of ridiculous...
 
Photizo said:
I've already told you, feel free to interpret those passages anyway you choose...you asked me a question, I gave you my answer, along with my understanding as to the 'why' behind the quite obvious vagueness of God's earliest intimations respecting The Messiah/Redeemer.

As our interpretations differ with respect to God's Word, so too they differ wrt to our definition of ridiculous...
Click to expand...

Photizo, guess how many times the words "redeemer," "savior," "saviour," "son of God," or "sacrificial lamb" appear in the entire books of Moses.

Yes, you guessed it. A grand total of ZERO.

I mean, common. The word savior didn't occur ONE TIME?
 
God told Abraham that through his seed, all the nations of the Earth would be blessed, but He didn't say Jesus specifically then either.

I guess He was talking about Joshua or Isaiah, right NDS?
 
IceAgeCivilizations said:
So we're left with those prophecies which we can never know about whom they are speaking, according to NDS, that's just great.
Click to expand...

IAC, common. Out of the entire 8 or 9 thousand verses Moses supposedly wrote, he found it in himself to dedicate a mere 3 or 4 weak verses to the Savior of All of Men and the King of Kings?

Something's wrong there. If Moses knew God so well (he saw him face to face) then I'm sure he would have been enlightened as to the coming of the most influencial man in all of history.
 
You must log in or register to reply here.
Back
Top