The word God or god by it's very definition and use in the English language defines a person. God is ALWAYS a who and not just a what. A person who is alive, has a male gender (as opposed to goddess), is moral, is conscious and sapient, intends and purposes, is capable of feelings like love, wrath,etc., is deserving of worship and service, and has supernatural powers. So anyone who uses the word God is axiomatically ascribing personhood to something, even if they insist God is just a force or metaphysical principle. Otherwise, why use the word God at all to describe it? A mere nonconscious force, much like dark energy or gravity, would best be called just that--a force. To ascribe to it properties and traits of godhood is to automatically invest it with personal qualities and consciousness and purposive agency. Hence when I say 99% of theists believe in God as a person, I mean just that: that they either believe in God as an objective and discrete person, or that they are intentionally personifying some impersonal agent, force, principle, energy, substance, etc. with the traits of God. Meanwhile, let's see what Wiki says about theism and theists in general:The OP assumes a nonexistent god, which cannot be personal.
And cite your source on that supposed "99% of all the religious theists on the planet...presupposed a personal God". According to a Pew survey, only 60% believe in a personal god - http://religions.pewforum.org/pdf/report2religious-landscape-study-key-findings.pdf
I will give you the definition of personal god once more, and then I will expect you to cite a reference if you wish to refute it. Otherwise you are just being evasive and playing at semantics (conflating "personhood" with "personal relationship").
A personal god is a deity who can be related to as a person instead of as an "impersonal force", such as the Absolute, "the All", or the "Ground of Being". - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_god
It does not matter that the term defines a person. What makes it a personal god is whether or not it can be related to as one. The personhood of god is not equivalent to a personal god. Granted a personal relationship requires personhood, but the reverse is not true, as there are vastly more people you have no relationship with than those you do.
You still have not shown where your 99% comes from, other than your ass. I even showed you statistic that directly refute your 99% as actually being only 60%. And your wiki quote did nothing but illustrate that you have conflated "personhood" with "personal relationship".
If God can be seen at all, he should be able to be seen by and pointed out to everyone who can see. And if God is seen everywhere all the time, then he should be describable with qualities that are distinct and characteristic of his godhood. Do you see God everywhere? What does God look like? And how is his appearance everywhere distinguishable from the everywhere he is appearing in? And more to the point, how is his appearance not a violation of freewill as you claim it would be?God is seen everywhere, all the time, according to most theists. Very few people assert the actual existence of "leprechauns, unicorns, dragons, etc.", so those are red-herrings. The scientific method, which is supposedly your criteria for "evidence", both cannot prove a negative and generally cannot offer proof at all.
Again, your criteria for evidence does not apply, according to the scientific method itself. And you are playing semantics.
see
1. perceive with the eyes; discern visually.
2. discern or deduce mentally after reflection or from information; understand.
Why should you insist on the primary meaning of "sees"? Maybe you know that allowing all commonly used definitions makes your argument weak. A god's omnipresence tends to be evident in interactions rather than isolated objects or inferred through isolated objects.
A god's appearance need only have some uncertainty to allow free will.
Where do you imagine I have disagreed with that?
Addressed above: "evident in interactions rather than isolated objects or inferred through isolated objects".
Again, you seem to be arbitrarily conflating something like "informed choice" with "freedom". Until you can cite a definition to support this, it seems you are only making up your own definitions to suit your argument.
And? This only distinguishes between personhood and personal relationship (i.e. the defining characteristic of a personal god).
Again, you are conflating personhood with personal relationship.
Strawman, as I never said "violated", I said "removing the free will to choose". The lack of choice does not "violate" free will. Why don't you quit conflating terms?
I am claiming exactly what I said in my opening post in this thread. Go read it again, and note where I did not say anything "violated" free will.
1. perceive with the eyes; discern visually.
2. discern or deduce mentally after reflection or from information; understand.
Why should you insist on the primary meaning of "sees"? Maybe you know that allowing all commonly used definitions makes your argument weak. A god's omnipresence tends to be evident in interactions rather than isolated objects or inferred through isolated objects.
A god's appearance need only have some uncertainty to allow free will.
I never said "freewill entailbeing able to not believe existing things exist". I specifically said that the unmistakable cannot be denied by the sane. Free will can only be expressed where choice exists.
You said God unmistakeably appearing to all humans would violate their freewill. Freewill to choose what? What choice is violated by his appearing to us? The freewill to not believe he exists, just as I said.
Where do you imagine I have disagreed with that?
Oh so God is INSIDE everything, lurking beyond its surfaces like a genie inside a lamp? That actually would make him pretty hard to see. I wonder how theists distinguish everything from the God who is existing in it? Surely an existent being like a God has some sort of existence separate from each and every thing. What are the properties and traits that distinguish God from everything? And if God wasn't in something, would we be able to tell the difference?An omnipresent god exists in everything, and it is in everything that theists may see god.
Addressed above: "evident in interactions rather than isolated objects or inferred through isolated objects".
Freedom implicitly entails sufficient knowledge to make a choice. Without that knowledge their is no free choice. That this has to even be spelt out to you doesn't really surprise me though..free·dom
1. the power or right to act, speak, or think as one wants without hindrance or restraint.
Your additions of "accurate knowledge and experience" are arbitrary restraints. Nowhere does the definition of freedom include any qualification of knowledge. Seems you have conflated "freedom" with something like "informed consent".
Again, you seem to be arbitrarily conflating something like "informed choice" with "freedom". Until you can cite a definition to support this, it seems you are only making up your own definitions to suit your argument.
To deify anything is to personify it because God for the theist is by definition a person. There's simply no way around this fact.You cannot even be bothered to check that 99% you keep pulling out of your ass. I have already shown that to be 60%, so your claim of understanding God is dubious right off the bat.
one-in-four – including about half of Jews and Hindus – see God as an impersonal force. - http://religions.pewforum.org/pdf/report2religious-landscape-study-key-findings.pdf
An impersonal force that is invested with the godlike qualities of intent, sapience, agency, choice, benevolence, etc.
And? This only distinguishes between personhood and personal relationship (i.e. the defining characteristic of a personal god).
The OP assumed a personal God by asking why HE doesn't show himself to us. If you want to inject some new impersonal definition of God, then I suggest you start a new thread. That's not what this one is about.Generalizing god is not obfuscation. It is simply accounting for more than just Abrahamic notions. If you wish to refute Christianity then you should say so, but no one else is necessarily obligated to restrict their arguments so (unless you start a new thread).
Again, you are conflating personhood with personal relationship.
You said God appearing to us would violate our free choice. Then you started talking about chairs. Why don't you try again and explain why God appearing to us violates free choice.Your qualification of "viable" choice does not change the fact that any sane person does not have any choice as to whether a chair exists. Who said any choice was "violated"? Just because a specific choice does not exist does not mean free will is absent, only that it cannot be expressed/exercised in that case.
Strawman, as I never said "violated", I said "removing the free will to choose". The lack of choice does not "violate" free will. Why don't you quit conflating terms?
Then what ARE you claiming? Or is this just the typical backpeddling we see from you when backed into a corner?I never made any claim about "the vast majority". And now you seem to be hedging your bets by saying "the act of faith" alone is serving god (which is typically held in contrast to "works"). A cherry-picked verse that ignores doctrines is useless.
I am claiming exactly what I said in my opening post in this thread. Go read it again, and note where I did not say anything "violated" free will.