That's task
master.
Just finished reading a good chunk of that part of the sura. It seems directed towards men (repeated phrase of "and when you (have) divorce(d) women"). I was confused by some bits in particular:
[Shakir 2:228] And the divorced women should keep themselves in waiting for three courses; and it is not lawful for them that they should conceal what Allah has created in their wombs, if they believe in Allah and the last day;
and their husbands have a better right to take them back in the meanwhile if they wish for reconciliation; and they have rights similar to those against them in a just manner, and the men are a degree above them, and Allah is Mighty, Wise.
The commentary explained it as such:
"But the men are a degree above women" refers to the natural differences which separate men from women. Allah is all-wise, therefore, particularly in the case of divorce, man can initiate the course of divorce, but a woman cannot. She, no doubt, can go to a qadi to obtain separation on the ground of unbearable maltreatment and demand dissolution of marriage by surrendering her right to mahar (dowry). This provision is reasonable because it prevents women from obtaining separation on flimsy grounds.
Islam gives women the right of choosing her life-partner. No one can compel her to accept any man as her husband. The matter lies entirely on her independent judgment. So she does not have the right to take the initiative for annulment of wedlock. Yet she has a recourse. She can go to a mujtahid or hakim sharah and obtain separation and then marry again whomsoever she likes.
I'm confused by the commentary. It states that a woman doesn't have the right to take the initiative for divorce, but points to some sort of loophole a sentence later? I'd like to clarify, is it still considered
talaq if it's the woman who initiates and obtains separation?