That's right. Just like the dcay of radioactive nuclei.
Yes. Radioactive nuclei decay through a probabilistic process. But there is no need for the UP to explain it. From what I understood in AlphaNumberic's post, it is due to tunneling, which is based on probability.
The explanation for the Casimir effect is just theoretical, if I'm not mistaken. It is similar to Hawking Radiation:
I'm still dubious about all this. I strongly disagree with Einstein's theory of space-time for example; this is just a hypothetical construct which has no evidence in reality. Particles have been detected in reality, yet the 'groupthink' of the last hundred years has blocked this avenue of thinking and research. Why can't radiating particles be the cause of the gravity force?
Hawking radiation is purely theoretical, with no detectable evidence, at least with today's technology. One would have to get close to a black hole and then do some kind of observation there in order to detect something. Supposedly it takes 10e100 years for a black hole to evaporate. The current age of the universe is ~1.4e11 , or about 90 orders of magnitude younger.
In quantum physics, everything can be treated as a particle. You can define vibrational waves as particles (phonons), because they have a wave characteristic. The point of the Large Hadron Collider is to define the 'particles' responsible for gravity. . . is my understanding correct here?
Once again, does anyone know about 'graininess of wavelength'? I believe this also has to do with Hawking radiation. Someone pointed out that Hawking radiation would be too weak and thus it would fall somewhere between the quanta of 0 and 1 of wavelength.