What part of my statement is false?
Are for SR time dilation, we have not only GPS, but we have this from Einstein:
If we assume that the result proved for a polygonal line is also valid for a continuously curved line, we arrive at this result: If one of two synchronous clocks at A is moved in a closed curve with constant velocity until it returns to A, the journey lasting t seconds, then by the clock which has remained at rest the travelled clock on its arrival at A will be $$$\frac{1}{2}tv^2/c^2$$$ second slow
http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
So, after we account for the GR effects of acceleration differentials, we have to also account for this SR time dilation.
Whereas GR effects of gravity and acceleration differentials are absolute, the time dilation part is not.
So, we certainly can remove the GR effects from the two clocks.
Then, all that is left is the SR effect of time dilation.
Under that context, time dilation is predicated on an agreed upon sped of light between the two observers.
Yet, if the clocks have different times on them because of SR time dilation, then they must disagree on the speed of light since they must agree on the position of the light sphere along the y-axis when they are again at the same place.
You mean you do not see the problem?
The 'problem is' your experiment isn't worth talking about and certainly would be a waste of time to do. I explained why earlier in the thread. All local measurements of the coordinate speed of light are invariant. Remote measurements of the coordinate speed of light can be anything from 0 to slightly < c. The experiment you 'thunk up' doesn't account for what type of measurement being made. IE it's a meaningless nonsense experiment but you seem to want to marry the idea.