Does time exist?

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What part does space play in what stops everything from happening at once?

I'm with Sean Carroll on this. From the wiki page you linked:

"The problem is not that I disagree with the timelessness crowd, it’s that I don’t see the point. I am not motivated to make the effort to carefully read what they are writing, because I am very unclear about what is to be gained by doing so. If anyone could spell out straightforwardly what I might be able to understand by thinking of the world in the language of timelessness, I’d be very happy to re-orient my attitude and take these works seriously."

It is interesting though.

The mathematical property is known as the real number system. Time is often indicated by real-valued numbers, or a coordinate if you prefer. Different events can have different time coordinates. If they do, then they don't happen at the same time.
So can I say, Time is the current coordinates of all the masses in the “now” space environment?

posting a property of TIME
Motion? Or, is time a property of motion?
Location? Or, is time a property of location?


Distance - concept
Volume - concept

Care to join the dots?

Create a concept in your mind

Construct other concepts from the first concepts
A created concept that’s naming a physical thing “Space” and it has “distance” another concept... but the concepts are still describing physical things/measurements no matter what you refer to the physical with. The physical still exists without our conjured concepts?
 
What part does space play in what stops everything from happening at once?
Well everything does happen at once in a Universal NOW

Space stops it happening in a single location

The stuff we look from the Mars Rovers happened, for us, at a previous NOW. But the distance between Earth and Mars and the speed of light limitations carrying the information to us splits our NOW from any Mars NOW

:)
 
Well everything does happen at once in a Universal NOW
No. There is no universal NOW, as I have explained.

The stuff we look from the Mars Rovers happened, for us, at a previous NOW.
Why do you insist on using bizarre language like that? Why not just say that the stuff we look at from the Mars Rover happened in our past?

But the distance between Earth and Mars and the speed of light limitations carrying the information to us splits our NOW from any Mars NOW
No. Not fundamentally. If Mars was actually stationary with respect to the Earth, we'd be in the same frame of reference, regardless of how far away Mars was.

You're making a common mistake that beginners in relativity often make, in confusing signalling delays for reference frame effects. The relativity of simultaneity, for instance, has nothing to do with signalling delays or light travel time.

Let me know when you stop knowing everything and are ready to learn something.
 
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So can I say, Time is the current coordinates of all the masses in the “now” space environment?
No. The main problem is that its impossible to specify a unique "now" environment. One of Michael 345's stumbling blocks in that he is unaware of this. That's far from the most serious problem for him, however.

Motion? Or, is time a property of motion?
By "motion" people usually have in mind something that involves speed. Speed is distance covered per unit time. The concept of speed is defined with reference to time; it assumes there is time.

(How could we possibly talk about motion in the absence of time?)
 
...The relativity of simultaneity, for instance, has nothing to do with signally delays or light travel time....
Not true at all. For a given relative velocity, the degree of nonsimultaneity (as opposed to its mere existence as phenomenon) is directly proportional to the relative displacement along the relative motion axis.
Thus has to involve signal delay (light travel time is a redundancy). See e.g. this Wikipedia illustration of AE's train thought experiment:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/9/96/Einstein_train_relativity_of_simultaneity.png
The longer the carriage, the greater the degree of nonsimultaneity - obviously.
 
Not true at all.
You're mistaken.

For a given relative velocity, the degree of nonsimultaneity (as opposed to its mere existence as phenomenon) is directly proportional to the relative displacement along the relative motion axis.
You haven't specified any particular events that you're referring to here, so it's hard to know what you're trying to say.

Relativity of simultaneity (let's stick with special relativity for now) depends only on the relative speed of the two reference frames involved. It does not in any way depend on whether there are any signals propagating from one place to another through spacetime or how fast they do that.
 
Again, you posted the same article in the previous thread, did you not? Like I said, it seems you have nothing new to add to our previous discussion.

I'll settle for pointing out two errors in the article: one from Rovelli, and one from the writer of the piece.

article said:
Imagine, for example, that you are on Earth, viewing a far-off planet, called Proxima b, through a telescope. Rovelli explains that “now” doesn’t describe the same present on Earth and that planet. The light you on Earth see when looking at Proxima b is old news, conveying what was on that planet four years ago. “There is no special moment of Proxima b that corresponds to the present here and now,” Rovelli writes.
In fact, in the reference frame of the "present here", there is one and only one "special moment" at Proxima b that would share the same time coordinate as "now" here.

Of course, an observer flying through space somewhere else would not necessarily say that the "present here" on Earth and that "special moment" on Proxima b happened simultaneously in his or her frame of reference. Maybe that was the point that Rovelli was making and he didn't express it clearly, or the part that was quoted was taken out of context. Otherwise, Rovelli is just wrong about this.

article said:
Consider, too, that we don’t share the same time in different places. Someone in London is always experiencing a different point in their day than someone in New York. Your New York morning is their afternoon. Your evening is their midnight. You only share the same time with people in a limited place, and even that is a relatively new invention.
This is the journalist's error.

The fact that the person in London and the person in New York are experiencing different daylight conditions doesn't mean they don't share "the same time". A time zone is not time. Time zones on Earth are just a convenience; they don't tell us anything fundamental about time itself.

If you drop a glass and it breaks at some instant in London, there will be one unique instant in New York at which that glass broke, too. The fact that it happened at 12 noon in the London time zone, when that instant was labelled as 7 am in New York is irrelevant.
 
You're mistaken.
Someone is for sure.
You haven't specified any particular events that you're referring to here, so it's hard to know what you're trying to say.
I gave a Wikipedia link. Check it out this time.
Relativity of simultaneity (let's stick with special relativity for now) depends only on the relative speed of the two reference frames involved.
You're out on a limb again. When observer A in frame S has zero relative displacement along the relative velocity axis to observer B in frame S', there is zero nonsimultaneity, regardless of relative speed. That is basic! The formula for time transformation makes it explicit e.g. Section 3.1, eqn (3.1) here:
https://users.physics.ox.ac.uk/~smithb/website/coursenotes/rel_A.pdf
The inverse transformation is shown in eqn (3.5)
Need help interpreting that simple expression? If x there is zero, we have a broadside situation and there is zero nonsimultaneity, even though relative clock rates are different. Savvy?
It does not in any way depend on whether there are any signals propagating from one place to another through spacetime or how fast they do that.
AE established the principle of nonsimultaneity based on signal propagations. Again - go back and actually look at that Wikipedia ref I linked to earlier.
And btw, re that in red, it very much depends on 'how fast they do that'. In a Newtonian universe c is infinite and nonsimultaneity would not exist, as eqn (3.1) makes obvious.
 
Someone is for sure.
You're repeating yourself. We already agreed that one of us is mistaken. I think it's you again.

I gave a Wikipedia link. Check it out this time.
There was no need. I went back and checked it, just in case, and it was what I expected it would be.

You're out on a limb again.
Nope.

When observer A in frame S has zero relative displacement along the relative velocity axis to observer B in frame S', there is zero nonsimultaneity, regardless of relative speed.
You're talking about two events that happen at the same place, there. If such events are simultaneous in one frame, they are simultaneous in every frame. Is that all you're saying? How is that relevant to anything I wrote?

That is basic! The formula for time transformation makes it explicit e.g. Section 3.1, eqn (3.1) here:
https://users.physics.ox.ac.uk/~smithb/website/coursenotes/rel_A.pdf
The inverse transformation is shown in eqn (3.5)
Need help interpreting that simple expression?
No. Do you?

If x there is zero, we have a broadside situation and there is zero nonsimultaneity, even though relative clock rates are different. Savvy?
How is this relevant to anything I wrote?

At least you've narrowed down your supposed objection to a specific pair of events now, even if you are confusing events with observers. Anyway, it's a non-issue.

AE established the principle of nonsimultaneity based on signal propagations.
Maybe, maybe not. Does it matter how he established it?

Again - go back and actually look at that Wikipedia ref I linked to earlier.
Why? Nothing you have said impacts on what I wrote.

And btw, re that in red, it very much depends on 'how fast they do that'. In a Newtonian universe c is infinite and nonsimultaneity would not exist, as eqn (3.1) makes obvious.
No. The same argument about signalling delays would apply to sound waves or any other kind of wave. It wouldn't need to depend on the speed of light.

The problem you're having here lies in your misconception that the relativity of simultaneity somehow involves light signals travelling from one place to another. It doesn't. Signalling delays might add on some time delay to when an observer located somewhere observes light or some other signal from an event occurring at a distance, but that effect has nothing to do with relativity, per se.

How about you step down from your high horse for a while? I think he's getting tired. Turn over a new leaf for 2020. Be a nicer person. Give it a try and you might find yourself being less grumpy all the time.
 
You're repeating yourself. We already agreed that one of us is mistaken. I think it's you again.


There was no need. I went back and checked it, just in case, and it was what I expected it would be.


Nope.


You're talking about two events that happen at the same place, there. If such events are simultaneous in one frame, they are simultaneous in every frame. Is that all you're saying? How is that relevant to anything I wrote?


No. Do you?


How is this relevant to anything I wrote?

At least you've narrowed down your supposed objection to a specific pair of events now, even if you are confusing events with observers. Anyway, it's a non-issue.


Maybe, maybe not. Does it matter how he established it?


Why? Nothing you have said impacts on what I wrote.


No. The same argument about signalling delays would apply to sound waves or any other kind of wave. It wouldn't need to depend on the speed of light.

The problem you're having here lies in your misconception that the relativity of simultaneity somehow involves light signals travelling from one place to another. It doesn't. Signalling delays might add on some time delay to when an observer located somewhere observes light or some other signal from an event occurring at a distance, but that effect has nothing to do with relativity, per se.

How about you step down from your high horse for a while? I think he's getting tired. Turn over a new leaf for 2020. Be a nicer person. Give it a try and you might find yourself being less grumpy all the time.
You presume I am somehow 'grumpy' for taking you to task for propagating error(s) here. The slippery eel who's ego won't allow admitting error.
Instead covering it up with obfuscation, and no doubt expecting fawning supporters to come in to help out or so they think. So deja vu:
http://www.sciforums.com/threads/traveling-toward-a-light-source.160434/

I never claimed light signals had to be specifically manifested in a given instance of nonsimultaneity - that was your insinuation. Yet signal delay, at light speed, is integral to how the concept was established - I'm repeating that here. Doesn't seem to be getting through.
 
Do you think the time delay between seeing a lightening strike and hearing the thunder is an example of simultaneity?
Well it's clear from your wording you think it's an example of nonsimultaneity. No. It's an example of signal delay (differential signal delay to be precise). Nonsimultaneity in the relativistic sense has to also involve relative velocity v AND separation along the axis of v. To repeat yet again.
And btw it was you that never had the decency to come back and admit your basic error in post #2 of that thread linked to last post.
 
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And btw it was you that never had the decency to come back and admit your basic error in post #2 of that thread linked to last post.
Oh, I forgot this is some sort of contest for you, I was incorrect, in post #2. I thought that was clear as the thread progressed.
Thank God we have cleared that up!
 
Oh, I forgot this is some sort of contest for you, I was incorrect, in post #2. I thought that was clear as the thread progressed.
Thank God we have cleared that up!
Not a contest - I just deduced your previous post was a support exercise meant to get James R off the hook. Instead, it backfired.
Do you admit that your lightening case in #2193 is NOT an example of relativistic nonsimultaneity, as you obviously thought it was?
 
1. And 2. Both reality and illusion.


That's a contradiction. Can you explain it?

We observe duration for the experience including time that is the regular duration (objective). The period or interval of time is imperceptible, so time is magnitive.
 
For Pete's Sake...

It's lightning. Not lightening.

Maybe there should be a little less throwing stones from glass houses...
And you actually think a simple spelling error is somehow worthy of a 'throwing stones in a glasshouse' tut tut - your attempt at a support effort for James R.
Hahaha - actually you forgot to check where that spelling error started here. Hint - go read #2193. You are unwittingly condemning a buddy! Fancy that.
All I did was copy his spelling. In retrospect a fool thing to do. But tell me, what does my 'sin' in doing that have anything whatsoever to do with the actual issues?
Nothing of course. So if you don't want to look like a cheap shot idiot, actually contribute to the physics issues in contention.
 
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