Leo Volont said:
Dear 786,
There are several references which come to mind. In one instance Jesus says "I and the Father are One".
JOHN 10:30 "I and the Father are one [
hen]." (NASU)
What did he mean by this declaration? Was he proclaiming that he was co-equal and co-eternal with the Father? Was Jesus saying that he and the Father were of the same essence or substance? Just what exactly was he trying to convey?
First, let's look at the Greek word
hen (one).
In Vincent's Word Studies of the New Testament, the late Professor Vincent states that hen, the Greek word translated "one" in John 10:30, is "the neuter, not the masculine είς, one person" (p. 197, vol. II).
Regarding this statement by Jesus, the Abingdon Bible Commentary says: "V. 30 does not affirm a metaphysical unity, but a moral, and we must not read the later creeds into the words" (p. 1079).
In A Commentary, Critical, Experimental, and Practical, Jamieson, Fausset, and Brown write of this verse:
Our language admits not of the precision of the original in this great saying, 'We (two Persons) are One (Thing).' Perhaps 'one interest' expresses nearly, though not quite, the purport of the saying. (p. 414, vol. III, part I)
The use of
hen in John 10:30 clearly indicates that Jesus was not claiming that he and the Father were the same being. An examination of how the same Greek word hen ("one") is used in other Scriptures will help us see what Christ did intend to convey by his statement.
Let's look at Jesus's prayer to the Father on the night before his crucifixion. In this supplication, he speaks several times of the state of being "one":
JOHN 17:11 "I am no longer in the world; and yet they themselves are in the world, and I come to You. Holy Father, keep them in Your name, the name which You have given Me, that they may be
ONE [hen] even as We are. (NASU)
Here Jesus prays that God the Father would keep his disciples in His name.
How was it possible for Jesus's disciples to be ONE in the same way that Jesus and the Father were ONE? Are you saying that Jesus is asking to make the desciples part of the Trinity? I think you and me, and everyone else knows that that answer is NO!. Well lets not stop here. A litte later. Jesus is praying and says:
JOHN 17:20 "I do not pray for these alone, but also for those who will believe in me through their word; 21 that they all may be
ONE [hen], as You, Father, are in me, and I in You; that they also may be
ONE [hen] in us, that the world may believe that You sent me. 22 And the glory which You gave me I have given them, that they may be
ONE [hen] just as we are
ONE [hen]: 23 I in them, and You in me; that they may be made perfect in one
[eis], and that the world may know that You have sent me, and have loved them as You have loved me." (NKJV)
I think it is very clear. We now know how Jesus and Father were ONE. One in message, I would say.
In another episode Jesus angered the Pharisees by using the phrase "I Am" which is how God had identified Himself to Moses.
This is just playing word games. This is similar to.
When Jews were doubtful about the identity of a particular blind
beggar who had been healed by Jesus, the blind beggar - who was no
more blind, kept saying; "I am (he)" (John 9:9, K.J.V.). Does that
make the blind beggar, God!
Really now tell me God said "I AM" the beggar said "I am" both God right?
Peace be unto you
Note: Try this thread, in which I have answered many quotes. I provide this so the same verses are not repeated.
http://www.sciforums.com/showthread.php?t=30133