Biblical errors

razz boo boo's

*Originally posted by razz
This is just the tip of the iceberg, I have about 60 pages of POSSIBLE mistakes within the bible.
Wonder what else was POSSIBLY mistaken.
*

I've got all the issues of Biblical Errancy.
Plus, did you know that the first list of "boo-boos" was published almost 1600 years ago, and contained upwards of 3000 items?
How many do you have in your 60 pages?

*What color was the robe
scarlet
purple
*

What color is a school bus, yellow or orange?

* When was the robe put on Jesus? *

3:46 pm

*This information was sourced online.
If you find a POSSIBLE mistake... oh well...
Blame the original author..dun ask me who that was.
*

You were on a roll until you wrote that.

It's God or you.
Who's right and who's wrong?

You pointed out some errors.
Been there, done that.
Seen it, did it, got the Tshirt.

I still have to choose between God and you.
I bet you make more mistakes than he does.

Besides, what's the big deal about errors in the Bible, anyway?
In the Bible, God's word is always described as spoken.
Perhaps you've noticed that the Bible is written.

We know that everything that is written in the Bible isn't God's spoken word, anyway.
Satan is in there speaking, along with quite a pile of demons and dozens of different people.
They aren't all God.

I couldn't help but notice how you put the word "possible" into capital letters so I wouldn't miss how you wanted me to see it.
There are POSSIBLE errors in every single thing you think.
How can you still think?

*Originally posted by tiassa
I don't know what you want toward proof of the appearance of contradiction if two sentences that create opposing states won't do it.
*

That's just it.
You claim a contradiction, and then claim that the appearance of a contradiction establishes it.

Well, no.
The appearance of a contradiction proves the existence of the appearance.
It takes some actual logic to demonstrate an actual contradiction.

*I'd say the presence of the words is the proof of the contradiction.*

That's a new low even for you.
I'd say the presence of those words is the proof that everything you say is contradictory.
 
It's up to you, Tony1 ....

The appearance of a contradiction proves the existence of the appearance.
And, if you'll note the topic post, it is that appearance of contradiction that we are attempting to resolve. Honestly, Tony1, why won't you put even the slightest effort into establishing the validity of what you assert? All you have to do is show the larger text and back up your assertion that most "contradictions" are a result of failing to read what is actually written, and you won't even do that. You think somehow that your assertion means that no context is required, but it is that larger text that demonstrates the context.

Why make the assertion if you're not prepared to back it up?

The appearance of contradiction offered establishes itself by representing two contradictory states, one in which the sons will not, and one in which the sons will bear the iniquities of the fathers. If the appearance of contradiction is resolved by a different perspective on the text, please offer it instead of just tell us the idea exists.

thanx,
Tiassa :cool:
 
Blonde Cupid

I take visiting iniquity to mean that the Lord shall cause the sons to bear that iniquity, by visiting iniquity upon them.

http://www.dictionary.com/cgi-bin/dict.pl?term=visit
(5)a. To afflict or assail: A plague visited the village.
b. To inflict punishment on or for; avenge: The sins of the ancestors were visited on their descendants. (American Heritage Dictionary)

5: impose something unpleasant: "The principal visited his rage on the students" [syn: inflict, bring down, impose] (WorldNet 1.6/Princeton)
Thus the appearance of contradiction arises from two contradictory states represented in the Bible,

* That the sons shall not bear the iniquities of the fathers ... (Ezekiel)
* That the sons shall bear the iniquities of the fathers, by proxy of the Lord's will when he visits the iniquity upon the fourth and fifth generations. (Exodus)

Are we at least on the same page toward visit, if nothing else?

thanx,
Tiassa :cool:
 
tiassa,

***Thus the appearance of contradiction arises from two contradictory states represented in the Bible,

* That the sons shall not bear the iniquities of the fathers ... (Ezekiel)
* That the sons shall bear the iniquities of the fathers, by proxy of the Lord's will when he visits the iniquity upon the fourth and fifth generations. (Exodus)

Are we at least on the same page toward visit, if nothing else?***

"Visiting iniquities" probably isn't the heart of the difficulty.

More likely - What of the "appearance" of contradiction and what of God's* choices in this matter?

I think I spoke to the appearance of contradiction before.
If one looks at the respective stages of development in man's biblical relationship with God* then the appearance of contradiction disappears when one considers the degree of maturation in the relationship within the context and chronology of Exodus vs Ezekiel.

Exodus came first. At that time, analogously, man was being educated on how to handle the vehicle of life in order to get from point A to point B safely. Since the relationship between man and God* was still in its infancy, the fathers were the first to be taught with the expectation that they would teach their children well. It would take generations for man's relationship with God* to mature to a point where sons would be able to get behind the wheel themselves. In the meantime, sons remained passengers along for the ride with their fathers. Therefore, it was incumbent upon the fathers to handle their vehicles properly in order to avoid a fatal crash because it would not only cause the fathers to lose their lives - it would also cause their passengers, their sons, to lose their lives.

Ezekiel came about 1800 years after Exodus. Man's relationship with God* had matured to a point where the sons, who had been sufficiently educated over time, were given license to handle their own vehicles themselves. They were no longer dependent on their fathers' choices for survival.

What, specifically, is it that you would like to discuss concerning God's* choices in this matter?
 
tiassa,

As to your second set of questions/assertions:

***Does this running revision of the human relationship with God imply that all is not known from the outset? What need has God of revision...***

First. It's not necessarily a revision. When any good and lasting relationship is "developed" it is most likely brought to a fuller, greater or better state in a gradual manner. As such, change is known to be an inherent part of such a "developing" relationship.

***Mind you, your personal faith might explain how it is that God could need to go back and fix something about the way things are put together, but that's part of the problem...***

On a similar note, your personal faith might explain why you see it as God* going back to "fix" something, insisting that God* must have made a mistake, rather than putting things into the context of the gradual disclosure which is inherent in the development of meaningful relationships.

***No interpretation of God can escape the facts that the Lord says one thing in one verse and another in another, and that the two statements equal opposing states.***

You assert that your interpretation of "opposing states" is fact? Then, why are we having this discussion?

***Revision works, but I didn't think God made mistakes...***

If you meant to say that you think God* doesn't make mistakes, then I think that I would agree with you. However, if you insist on insisting that your interpretation is fact, then I can see how you would also insist on concluding that God* made mistakes.

I'm not insisting that I know all the facts. I'm not insisting that I understand everything that God* does. I'm not even insisting that I agree with everything that God* does (because in order to do that I would first have to insist that I understand everything that God* does). However, I do believe in God* and like you apparently used to think, I still don't think that God* makes mistakes. To me, God* making mistakes is an oxymoron. Now, if you want to try and convince me that God* does make mistakes, rendering the God* that I believe in non-existant, then I am open to listening. However, it would be appreciated if you would not take the position that an interpretation of yours is fact. Thanks.

***...and furthermore, what does this say of Biblical laws pertaining to homosexuality, diet, tattoos, haircuts, &c? That, perhaps, they are outdated laws from an earlier period in the development of the human relationship with God? What does this need for revision say of the Hebrew laws that Christ did not address? You know, the ones Paul got to, eventually? Did you go to the edge of town for the required period after your last bowel movement? It isn't that the idea isn't valid, Cupid, but that it invites a host of considerations toward the larger image of faith.***

You are correct here when you say, "It isn't that the idea isn't valid" because it is, rendering your interpretation as just that... your interpretation, not fact. As far as other considerations go, if you're open to it, we can discuss them one-by-one if you'd like.
 
Blonde Cupid

"Visiting iniquities" probably isn't the heart of the difficulty.
Perhaps not, but I thought it worth exploring per your consideration of that very issue on 12/31.
I think I spoke to the appearance of contradiction before.
I think you did, indeed. As I recall, part of the issue that remained was that your explanation centered entirely around the choices of the fathers and the sons, and spoke none of God's choice to visit iniquity.
Therefore, it was incumbent upon the fathers to handle their vehicles properly in order to avoid a fatal crash because it would not only cause the fathers to lose their lives - it would also cause their passengers, their sons, to lose their lives.
My only question regards this is what, then, of the fourth and fifth generations? How many were packed into that Buick? ;)
Ezekiel came about 1800 years after Exodus. Man's relationship with God* had matured to a point where the sons, who had been sufficiently educated over time, were given license to handle their own vehicles themselves. They were no longer dependent on their fathers' choices for survival.
The only note I intend to make here is that this point is noted for future reference. (It's a curious twist from the idea of God's word being perfect; it implies fallibility and the need for discovery, which does help--by creating an imperfect and limited God--to explain the apperances of contradiction, and the imperfection of the religious system and its resulting faith.)
What, specifically, is it that you would like to discuss concerning God's* choices in this matter?
I'm curious why discussion of God's choices centers so much around people's decisions. Why is what the Lord does so dependent upon the people? I see no codicil, appendix, footnote, clause, or otherwise indicating that the sons had much of a choice: that is, even if the sons rejected the sins of the fathers, the Lord would still visit those iniquities upon them.

You're onto that untread academic response I hinted at, Cupid. All anyone needs to do now is to show the larger text of the Exodus citation and show what Teg has left out. As a general question, why can nobody do this? Specifically, though, I think you're focusing too greatly on factors not fully introduced to the topic. What's bugging me, to be honest, is that I think this appearance of contradiction can most likely be reasonably refuted--that is, even if I disagree with the refutation, it will hold enough credibility as valid that I have to at least recognize that validity. But I'm not about to go and buld an argument that I disagree with just to resolve this debate. I'm curious why it seems that those who assert the contradiction to be invalid won't just straight out demonstrate it using the texts themselves and offering the perspective that Teg or any of us who see the contradiction are missing. It's honestly feels like you and Tony1 are waiting for us to go out and do the work for you; if there's a straightforward resolution, then all anyone wants is to see it.

And there I see your next post ... I'll get to it later.

thanx,
Tiassa :cool:
 
tony1,

You ask what the big deal is with errors in the bible. The big deal is this: you continually quote the bible as the source of all truth in scientific and other matters. Yet, as has been shown, the bible contradicts even itself, let alone other documents and sources of knowledge. If there are logical contradictions in the bible, how can it be the source of all truth? If it is shown to be wrong in some respects (which you seem to agree is the case) then why can't it be wrong in other respects?

The fact is: the bible was written by fallible humans, dictated to by God or not. Even IF your God exists, how do we know that the bible is an accurate account of him or his words? It isn't even self-consistent.
 
it's actually up to you

*Originally posted by tiassa
And, if you'll note the topic post, it is that appearance of contradiction that we are attempting to resolve.
...
Why make the assertion if you're not prepared to back it up?
*

You, as in Teg, and you because you've taken up the torch, asserted the contradiction.
There was no mention of "appearance," only of "error" and "contradiction."

Thus the onus is on you to prove that there is a contradiction.
It is not sufficent to prove the appearance of a contradiction.

*The appearance of contradiction offered establishes itself by representing two contradictory states, one in which the sons will not, and one in which the sons will bear the iniquities of the fathers. If the appearance of contradiction is resolved by a different perspective on the text, please offer it instead of just tell us the idea exists.*

How about you telling me what the idea that supposedly exists is?
You could start by explaining how an apparent contradiction is proof that a real contradiction exists.
You could even try telling me what the contradiction itself is.

So far, you've stated that you see a contradiction.
OK, I'll take your word for that, and I'll even agree that you see a contradiction.

The next step would be for you explain how what you think you see relates to reality.

*Originally posted by James R
You ask what the big deal is with errors in the bible. The big deal is this: you continually quote the bible as the source of all truth in scientific and other matters. Yet, as has been shown, the bible contradicts even itself, let alone other documents and sources of knowledge. If there are logical contradictions in the bible, how can it be the source of all truth?
*

That's a good point.
Essentially what it boils down to is this....

1. The Bible, with some alleged errors in it.
2. All other knowledge, with proven, scientifically established, verified error in it.

It seems like a no-brainer, doesn't it?

As for contradiction, it remains to be seen if the Bible contradicts itself.
There is no argument from me that it contradicts myriads of other documents.

However, I can see, but you can't, that those other documents hopelessly contradict each other.
In addition, the authors of those other documents actually write them with the specific intention of contradicting the other documents.

Thus, the entire collection of all other documents is useless.

*If it is shown to be wrong in some respects (which you seem to agree is the case) then why can't it be wrong in other respects?*

You can't be serious.
If your thinking is shown to be wrong in some respects, then why can't it be wrong in other respects?
Since you are using your thinking to evaluate the Bible, how do you know your thinking isn't hopelessly muddled on that issue along with others?

Are you actually convinced that your thinking could be in error on every single point EXCEPT where the Bible is concerned?

*The fact is: the bible was written by fallible humans, dictated to by God or not.*

True, the Bible says as much.

*Even IF your God exists, how do we know that the bible is an accurate account of him or his words? It isn't even self-consistent.*

Even IF you exist, how do we know what you write is an accurate account of you or your words? Your writing isn't even self-consistent, unless of course you're infallible.

Your argument in this case is that you will tolerate no less than 100% accuracy (as defined by you) where the Bible is concerned, but less than 1% accuracy with everything else is just fine.

In essence, you say that 100% accuracy is required to believe one thing, but believing its opposite only requires, say, 0.0001% accuracy.

Your scientific method doesn't even work that way.
There a preponderance of evidence is sufficient.
For some that may be 51-49, for others it may be 99-1, but who demands 100-0.0001, which is impossible anyway because it adds up to more than 100?

In essence you've set yourself up with an impossibility.
If the Bible must be 100, then as scientific evidence increases, it will begin to approach 100, but can never reach it due to the fact that there will always be something else to check.

As time passes, your choice becomes 100-30, or 100-40, and again you're faced with an impossible choice.

Best of luck, you've set yourself up with an impossibility, precisely because of a defect in your thinking which is provably imperfect.
Then, based on that impossibility, you again use your proven defective thinking, to make the wrong choice.

Incidentally, when I am saying that you have defective thinking, it isn't an insult.
You yourself say that you could be wrong, which is an admission that you recognize that your thinking is imperfect.
 
Tony1

"I contend that we are both atheists, I just believe in one less god than you do. When you understand why you dismiss all other possible gods, then you will know why I dismiss yours."

Have a lovely sun shiney day
cheers
RazZ
 
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tiassa,


***quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
"Visiting iniquities" probably isn't the heart of the difficulty.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Perhaps not, but I thought it worth exploring per your consideration of that very issue on 12/31.***

Yeah. Thanks. But after reading your response and some other posts of yours, it now appears that wasn't the difficulty after all.


***quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I think I spoke to the appearance of contradiction before.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I think you did, indeed. As I recall, part of the issue that remained was that your explanation centered entirely around the choices of the fathers and the sons, and spoke none of God's choice to visit iniquity.***

Not quite. For example, as I mentioned a few posts ago "... it was incumbent upon the fathers of the Exodus generation to lead by example and it was made clear there would be severe consequences upon their family for generations if the fathers chose the way of unrighteousness."


***quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Ezekiel came about 1800 years after Exodus. Man's relationship with God* had matured to a point where the sons, who had been sufficiently educated over time, were given license to handle their own vehicles themselves. They were no longer dependent on their fathers' choices for survival.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The only note I intend to make here is that this point is noted for future reference. (It's a curious twist from the idea of God's word being perfect; it implies fallibility and the need for discovery, which does help--by creating an imperfect and limited God--to explain the apperances of contradiction, and the imperfection of the religious system and its resulting faith.)***

It does imply fallibility and the need for discovery on the part of man, not God*, tiassa. It implies imperfection and limitation on the part of man, not God*, tiassa. What a curious twist, indeed.


***quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
What, specifically, is it that you would like to discuss concerning God's* choices in this matter?
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I'm curious why discussion of God's choices centers so much around people's decisions. Why is what the Lord does so dependent upon the people?***

This sounds like another twist on which came first, the chicken or the egg? God's* choices concerning man were made first. They were made first and then they were made known to the people. Once presented, it is up to the person to decide their own fate.

***I see no codicil, appendix, footnote, clause, or otherwise indicating that the sons had much of a choice: that is, even if the sons rejected the sins of the fathers, the Lord would still visit those iniquities upon them.***

Did you read Ezekiel 18 in full which I posted?

In Exodus, the sons did not know enough to reject sin. It was incumbent upon their fathers to teach them. By the time of Ezekiel, the sons knew enough to make their own choices and were held accountable for their own actions.

***All anyone needs to do now is to show the larger text of the Exodus citation and show what Teg has left out. As a general question, why can nobody do this?***

At this point, other than possibly posting God's* promise of mercy down to the thousandth generation on the children of those who love God* and keep the commandments, I have no idea what you're talking about. I don't see how the larger text of Exodus 20 changes much with respect to the alleged contradiction between Ex 20:5 vs Ez 18:20. But, since you do, I'd suggest that you be the one to demonstrate it.

***Specifically, though, I think you're focusing too greatly on factors not fully introduced to the topic.***

I was focusing on one particular contradiction which was brought up in this thread, specifically, Ex 20:5 vs Ez 18:20, by discussing the passages in the context of a bigger picture.

***What's bugging me, to be honest, is that I think this appearance of contradiction can most likely be reasonably refuted--that is, even if I disagree with the refutation, it will hold enough credibility as valid that I have to at least recognize that validity.***

It has been reasonably refuted and you've already recognized its validity, or at least hinted at it, at least once... "It isn't that the idea isn't valid, Cupid..."

***But I'm not about to go and buld an argument that I disagree with just to resolve this debate. I'm curious why it seems that those who assert the contradiction to be invalid won't just straight out demonstrate it using the texts themselves and offering the perspective that Teg or any of us who see the contradiction are missing.***

Such a perspective has already been offered with respect to Ex 20:5 vs Ez 18:20. You've seen it, you've acknowledged its validity, and now you deny it?

***It's honestly feels like you and Tony1 are waiting for us to go out and do the work for you;***

Get over yourself, will you please? If you've got something better to offer, just do it.

***if there's a straightforward resolution, then all anyone wants is to see it.***

Yeah. I'd like to see at least one debate in this forum get resolved in a straightforward manner. Why don't you take a crack at it?
 
I'll call your onus and raise you a "Duh"

Thus the onus is on you to prove that there is a contradiction.
It is not sufficent to prove the appearance of a contradiction.
It has been pointed out a few times that the two passages in question represent contradictory states: one in which the sons shall bear the iniquities of the fathers, and one in which they shall not.

Now, what is so hard to grasp about that? It's shown in the topic citations, and explained several times.

What I think it might be is that you're not capable of answering the issue; or perhaps you'd like to explain why once again you have plenty to say but nothing to contribute to the progress of the topic.

If the black and white words of the Bible and the conventionally accepted lexicon and grammar of the prevailing vernacular are not sufficient proof for you that contradictory states are represented, then I don't know what else you need. For starters, it's the Bible. I didn't realize there was such a grey zone about what it says as you've established. There's also the factor of language: which one would suit you best? But I figure since we're reading an English translation of the Bible, that should be the language we consider in our debate. The nearest I can figure here is that you're not perceiving the words the same as I do. While that's obvious, I'm coincidentally stumped as to what the problem is. What words in the topic citation do you not understand?
How about you telling me what the idea that supposedly exists is?
You could start by explaining how an apparent contradiction is proof that a real contradiction exists.
You could even try telling me what the contradiction itself is.
I'll number these, so it's easier for you to follow:

1. Only you know what that idea is. If you were actually following the discussion instead of looking for diversions, you might have noticed that the idea in question is the one that somehow equates to you that two sentences representing contradictory states don't show a contradiction. For instance, I wrote, If the appearance of contradiction is resolved by a different perspective on the text, please offer it instead of just tell us the idea exists. Would you like me to try that again in simple language? If you think a different perspective on the text will resolve the appearance of contradiction, then tell us what that perspective is; don't just tell us it exists, try explaining it. Tell us, Tony1, why is it that by the time you demonstrate that you have a clue what the topic at hand is it's twenty posts later and you're still not willing to give it serious consideration? Why do your responses so often indicate that you simply don't understand what you're responding to?

2. Well, as presented in the topic post, the two passages are contradictory. Whether you want to call it a contradiction or the appearance thereof is actually irrelevant; the only distinction comes when you assert that the contradiction cited is not a contradiction. Very well, there still exists the appearance of a contradiction to be resolved. The easiest way for you to communicate why that appearance is false is to tell us why the two passages that represent contradictory states do not actually represent contradictory states. I find it quite the sad testament to the nature of faith that such a simple answer has either not occurred to you or else has occurred to you and been determined to be unworthy of your consideration.

3. If you're suggesting that nobody has pointed out what the contradiction is, then I seriously find myself doubting your reading skills.
"The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father..." -- Ezekiel 18:20
Meaning: Children will not be responsible for the actions of their parents.
"I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation..." -- Exodus 20:5
Meaning: I your God will place guilt for the actions of the fathers into the 3rd and 4th generation. (Teg to Tony1, 12/29/01)

The appearance of contradiction offered establishes itself by representing two contradictory states, one in which the sons will not, and one in which the sons will bear the iniquities of the fathers. If the appearance of contradiction is resolved by a different perspective on the text, please offer it instead of just tell us the idea exists. (Tiassa to Tony1, 1/1/02)

Thus the appearance of contradiction arises from two contradictory states represented in the Bible,

* That the sons shall not bear the iniquities of the fathers ... (Ezekiel)
* That the sons shall bear the iniquities of the fathers, by proxy of the Lord's will when he visits the iniquity upon the fourth and fifth generations. (Exodus) (Tiassa to Blonde Cupid, 1/1/02)
Do you require further clarification, Tony1?

Or are you prepared to address the issue at hand: Can you answer the contradiction presented or not?

:rolleyes:,
Tiassa :cool:
 
***I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation [of those who hate me]" -- Exodus 20:5***

Hello? Hello? Hello?

"...unto the third and fourth generation."

"...unto the third and fourth generation."

"...unto the third and fourth generation."

My apologies for being so redundant. But, it seems that it might be necessary in this case.

How long does anyone here think that three or four generations lasts?

More than, say, 1800 years from Exodus to Ezekiel?

Just curious.
 
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A little impatient, Cupid? Then stop slowing the process.

More than, say, 1800 years from Exodus to Ezekiel?
I don't see how that's relevant. Sorry to be so blunt.

Oh, or is it that God was referring to a specific set of guilty? Is that part of the point we're missing? If so, would it not have been easier to post that portion of the text and make that point clear? We could have resolved this topic in one post, then.
Not quite. For example, as I mentioned a few posts ago "... it was incumbent upon the fathers of the Exodus generation to lead by example and it was made clear there would be severe consequences upon their family for generations if the fathers chose the way of unrighteousness."
Right, and by the will of God. On this point we have no disagreement.
It does imply fallibility and the need for discovery on the part of man, not God*, tiassa. It implies imperfection and limitation on the part of man, not God*, tiassa. What a curious twist, indeed.
Ah, so it is man that rewrites the terms of his covenant with God? I hadn't realized that Biblical man had the authority in the God-man relationship. In case you hadn't noticed, the change is God's unless we're to discredit the prophet. That is, God says one thing at one time, and another at another. These two things contradict. Now, I have no problem with the progressive relationship 'twixt God and man, but what does this say of God's method? Quite simply, that God needs to continually redefine the relationship 'twixt Himself and His creations because each state of that relationship becomes inadequate. Now my theology doesn't have a problem with this, but most people's hit a brick wall when considering the inadequacy of God. But it was God's will that the relationship should be inadequate and redefined; if God was not prepared for the experimental result, He should not have been in the lab. I hadn't meant to spend this much on this digression until it came up for a topic, but the only problem with the redefined relationship are the ideas of why that relationship needs redefining and what that means in practical application. That, indeed, makes for a curious twist.
This sounds like another twist on which came first, the chicken or the egg? God's* choices concerning man were made first. They were made first and then they were made known to the people. Once presented, it is up to the person to decide their own fate.
Of course, this is only after Ezekiel. See, that's the whole point of noting the contradiction. By Exodus, those who decide their own fate when presented with the law will be subject to the iniquities of the father because God will visit those iniquities upon them. Aside from your mischaracterization of the issue (was that intentional?) I'm not sure you addressed the point. Part of the contradiction at hand is the idea of why the sons who stand with God would be subject to the iniquities of the fathers. What the fathers teach and the sons decide is irrelevant if God wants the sons to bear the burdens.

What is important about the resolution is that it does not shake the broader paradigm of the faith. The resolution you've offered, while anthropologically sound insofar as any religious idea is anthropologically sound, and while easily conceivable, presents a condition whereby much of the perceived evil that God will regard and judge will result solely from His inadequacy in the relationship--why would God waste the time to fix what wasn't broken?

Now, does God make mistakes?

Obviously not; thus, we can only conclude that the need to redefine the relationship--the sense of growing inadequacy--is specifically by design; in that sense, what was the point of those sons bearing the burdens?
In Exodus, the sons did not know enough to reject sin. It was incumbent upon their fathers to teach them. By the time of Ezekiel, the sons knew enough to make their own choices and were held accountable for their own actions.
I see nothing in the Exodus citation in question to speak of what the sons would choose; I see nothing of what the sons did or did not know. Specifically, what I see is that the Lord will visit those iniquities upon them, regardless. And why? Jealousy. Because the fathers rejected God, the Lord will take it out on the sons. There's a mafia/golf joke about getting back at or blackballing you, your children, your children's children ... and so forth. It's a cheap line that fills predictable moments in gangster comedies. But it has precedent. The Lord will take it out on you, your children, your children's children, and so forth. And for something your father did.

We recently had an episode in the Seattle area where a five year-old brought a gun to school and killed a little girl. The investigation turned up a frightening story. The boy lived, essentially, in a crack-house. Let your most squalid nightmares run wild on that; the gun was easy enough to obtain, and we need not look farther than the occupants of the house to answer the question of where he learned that guns are a solution. Now this idea I understand. But I don't think that's the sole point of the Exodus part. God wasn't nearly so specific as the refutations of contradiction have been.

If, by Exodus, the Lord guarantees--by His will--this transferrence of method and perspective, then we have no free will, and the whole human endeavor becomes nothing more than a show of grandeur by a cruel and hidden puppeteer.
At this point, other than possibly posting God's* promise of mercy down to the thousandth generation on the children of those who love God* and keep the commandments, I have no idea what you're talking about. I don't see how the larger text of Exodus 20 changes much with respect to the alleged contradiction between Ex 20:5 vs Ez 18:20. But, since you do, I'd suggest that you be the one to demonstrate it.
That you should deliberately choose that path tells me what it's worth. You have to understand, on this point, since I ride Tony1 about his bowdlerized citations and off-topic responses, and the importance of context as relates such diversions, I feel obliged to invite you over and over again to simply tell us that Teg has the wrong idea about those two citations and show why. If the larger text changes nothing for you, then I'm perfectly happy to sit here and await a proper explanation of the contradiction. You're on your way to one, and please don't think I don't appreciate it. But I want to make sure you know exactly how big a theological can of worms you're opening with this notion of revising the relationship according to the growing body of human knowledge. The result of it becomes vital: we've mentioned things like tattoos, dietary law, and sexuality. It isn't that we necessarily need to undertake these issues presently--sexuality, especially, has a way of coming up--but that we see in the offered resolution a device of flexibility not present in a more relevant (to my life) form of the Christian faith, the activist faith. To use a specific point of illustration: in my political career people have died for being homosexual while the Bible was on the ballot. We can fairly say that we see among the activist-fundamentalist Christianity that lobbies for laws and demands suspension of civil rights a lack of this device of flexibility you've employed. Understand, I'm thrilled to even see it. It's all in what people do with it, then, to be just and not arbitrary; but as a practical application, I can't tell you how foreign an idea this flexibility is to my Christian experience. To steer back to direct relevance, there's a reason I'm hounding on this revising of the human relationship with God. Understanding its dimensions within the Christian endeavor is difficult since it is generally denied. I don't yet understand how it functions for you, so yeah ... there's a reason I press on that issue.
It has been reasonably refuted and you've already recognized its validity, or at least hinted at it, at least once... "It isn't that the idea isn't valid, Cupid..."
And here's the reason I keep asking about the larger text. I'm sure you'll find the example you're providing is irrelevant, since the validity wasn't relevant as I had pointed out. If you're referring to another time, please point me to it, but I'm pretty damn sure that's what you're citing.
Such a perspective has already been offered with respect to Ex 20:5 vs Ez 18:20. You've seen it, you've acknowledged its validity, and now you deny it?
Like I said, a can of worms. Big. Huge.
Get over yourself, will you please? If you've got something better to offer, just do it.
Ah, the last time I pointed out that you have no point, you got upset. What, are you admitting it this time? What is it about your faith that you won't put any effort into it? What, you say it is so and we believe? I know life would be easier that way, Cupid, but you've got to give a little more to justify your position. Like I noted, there's nothing in Exodus about the choices, and if God is willing to guarantee the passing of those sins--to eliminate the free choice to transcend--merely because the inadequacy of the relationship He has designed leads him to doubt the possibility of transcension ... well? It's a pretty stupid drill, then, isn't it?

I mean, Exodus makes it pretty clear that God is willing to make sure that burden of iniquity gets passed along. Now, your offered explanation is fine, except that it cracks the rest of the faith as I mentioned. It's not just the people that are confused about their relationship with God, and it's pretty fair to say that all bets are off if this constant revision of the terms of the relationship is the real and proper way of things. I mean, like I said, it's not that your refutation of the contradiction isn't valid. It just does a whole lot of collateral damage in the meantime.
Yeah. I'd like to see at least one debate in this forum get resolved in a straightforward manner. Why don't you take a crack at it?
Sure: I agree that the conditions of contradiction exist, and I cannot accept the refutation which, while proper within the condition it attempts to resolve, invites greater and more fundamental questions pertaining to the validity of the very faith. To accept your resolution, Cupid requires a step deeper into the forest of doubt. You raise more difficulties than you resolve.

Straightforward enough?

--Tiassa :cool:
 
tiassa,

***Part of the contradiction at hand is the idea of why the sons who stand with God would be subject to the iniquities of the fathers.***

One more time. Sons could not stand with God* at Exodus because they did not know what that meant. It was incumbent upon their fathers teach them.
 
tiassa,

I asked: How long does anyone here think that three or four generations lasts?

More than, say, 1800 years from Exodus to Ezekiel?

You respond that you don't see how that's relevant.

Of course, to be blunt, if you can't see the relevance, then you can continue to feign seeing the appearance of a contradiction.
 
tiassa,

***I feel obliged to invite you over and over again to simply tell us that Teg has the wrong idea about those two citations and show why.***

Uh. Hello. I've demonstrated why a number of times already.

***If the larger text changes nothing for you, then I'm perfectly happy to sit here and await a proper explanation of the contradiction.***

Hello again. I believe I'm the one who addressed the citations in terms of the larger text.

***You're on your way to one, and please don't think I don't appreciate it. But I want to make sure you know exactly how big a theological can of worms you're opening with this notion of revising the relationship according to the growing body of human knowledge.***

It's on the table, so let's indulge. The difference, I believe, is that you see God's* bringing man forth in God's* way as a form of inadequacy on the part of God* and I don't.

***The result of it becomes vital: we've mentioned things like tattoos, dietary law, and sexuality. It isn't that we necessarily need to undertake these issues presently--sexuality, especially, has a way of coming up--but that we see in the offered resolution a device of flexibility not present in a more relevant (to my life) form of the Christian faith, the activist faith. To use a specific point of illustration: in my political career people have died for being homosexual while the Bible was on the ballot. We can fairly say that we see among the activist-fundamentalist Christianity that lobbies for laws and demands suspension of civil rights a lack of this device of flexibility you've employed. Understand, I'm thrilled to even see it. It's all in what people do with it, then, to be just and not arbitrary; but as a practical application, I can't tell you how foreign an idea this flexibility is to my Christian experience. To steer back to direct relevance, there's a reason I'm hounding on this revising of the human relationship with God. Understanding its dimensions within the Christian endeavor is difficult since it is generally denied. I don't yet understand how it functions for you, so yeah ... there's a reason I press on that issue.***

So? What do you want to know about how it functions for me?

***Ah, the last time I pointed out that you have no point, you got upset. What, are you admitting it this time? What is it about your faith that you won't put any effort into it?***

First of all, I was unaware that it was your opinion that I had no point in this matter. If that's really how you feel then it's pretty sad, the amount of time and energy you're spending discussing no point.

Secondly, the last time? I'm pretty sure what it is you're getting at here and if you want to go there you're on your own. You assume much but know next to nothing about me, my faith or the effort I put into it.

***What, you say it is so and we believe? I know life would be easier that way, Cupid, but you've got to give a little more to justify your position.***

Oh, please. This, from one who compares "part" of one out-of-context verse to "part" of another out-of-context verse and declares, as fact, that they are opposing states?

***Like I noted, there's nothing in Exodus about the choices***

There's nothing in Exodus about what choices? Man is being educated about the choices in Exodus.

***... and if God is willing to guarantee the passing of those sins--to eliminate the free choice to transcend-***

As far as I can see, there was no guarantee that sins would pass unless the father actually sinned. The objective was, I believe, to educate man as to the choices and those who were not yet educated as to the choices were not in a position to exercise free choice.

***-merely because the inadequacy of the relationship He has designed leads him to doubt the possibility of transcension ...***

By what authority do you declare the relationship to be "inadequate"?

By what authority do you judge that God* has been lead to "doubt"?
 
By what authority? That's laughable

Uh. Hello. I've demonstrated why a number of times already.
I don't think you have. You've focused on the Ezekiel half, and written much of choices and inheritence of ideas, but you haven't written of why God chooses to visit that iniquity to the fourth and fifth generations. I can meet you halfway and "get it", but I'm waiting for you to say that God becomes less real and more conceptual before I do, because that's what it equals and though you leave us to assume what you're referring to by not actually mentioning it, we've all learned that it's best not to assume, even sympathetically. Oh, you have written of Exodus, you admitted that the sons don't have much choice. And in Ezekiel they have the choice. There's another way of looking at the contradiction that prevents you from resolving it by focusing solely on the people. There are choices by God afoot, and those are largely being ignored in the mad rush to declare the contradiction resolved, invalid, or anything other than what it is: extant and unanswered.
Hello again. I believe I'm the one who addressed the citations in terms of the larger text.
Of Ezekiel. Now, what of Exodus ... ah, that's right, the larger text doesn't change anything. Thus, the contradiction still exists.
So? What do you want to know about how it functions for me?
It merely involves learning the terms of how you employ the device, and whether or not it remains consistent throughout your theological application. It's a longer-term process that tells me about your spiritual integrity, and speaks much toward the value of what you have to offer. For instance, do you remember when I jumped all over KalvinB for his treatment of Godless' list of contradictions? Part of what we argued was the objector's need to separate the topic post into individual parts. This allows one to isolate each contradiction and resolve it without ever making the myriad resolutions function together. Case in point, this device of flexibility you've prescribed: if it consistently is acknowledged in your theological considerations, it's genuine. If it's something you drag out for lack of anything else, we'll know that soon enough when the device fails to reappear in future debates.
Oh, please. This, from one who compares "part" of one out-of-context verse to "part" of another out-of-context verse and declares, as fact, that they are opposing states?
On the one hand, it's a little late for you to hide behind context. On the one hand, you already said that the larger text of Exodus doesn't change the context, so what's the problem now? Something about argumentative integrity? For instance this, where you've thrown some away by rejecting your own statements. Good show, mate.
There's nothing in Exodus about what choices? Man is being educated about the choices in Exodus
Right, but whatever the sons decide, the Lord shall still visit that iniquity upon them. Why? That's the point about choices that you've failed to address: it doesn't matter what the sons choose--the Lord will whack them anyway.
As far as I can see, there was no guarantee that sins would pass unless the father actually sinned. The objective was, I believe, to educate man as to the choices and those who were not yet educated as to the choices were not in a position to exercise free choice.
This is as utterly irrelevant as you can get. Who gives a rat's behind about that? How can the sons bear the iniquity of the sins of the fathers if the fathers don't sin in the first place? Are you prescribing some mythical attribute to the Bible that makes it not the clear and literal truth as written? Fine with me; I'm all for the looser interpretations. But by Exodus, the Lord will intervene and ensure that the sons bear the iniquities. Has nothing to do with "education".
By what authority do you declare the relationship to be "inadequate"?

By what authority do you judge that God* has been lead to "doubt"?
By what authority? I didn't know I needed special authority to read a Bible:

1. Inadequate: Well? God keeps needing to revise his relationship with humans. It's not like we can rewrite the terms and call it even.

2. Doubt: It seems God is taking from people the possibility of transcending the sins of the fathers; per Exodus, why not give the sons a chance to transcend the past? Why guarantee it?

By what authority? You're almost funny, Cupid.
I asked: How long does anyone here think that three or four generations lasts?

More than, say, 1800 years from Exodus to Ezekiel?

You respond that you don't see how that's relevant.

Of course, to be blunt, if you can't see the relevance, then you can continue to feign seeing the appearance of a contradiction
So, then, God was referring to specific sinners? Say, the Haymarket 7 instead of all sinners in general? (As an example)

That's why the 1800 years is irrelevant in comparison to the number of generations. Who was God referring to, then, when he said he would visit iniquity to the fourth and fifth generations?

By what authority? Is that the best you can come up with?

--Tiassa :cool:
 
tiassa,

Moving forward, we can debate the why's in more detail if you'd like.

For now, it would be appreciated if we could stay focused on the issue of whether or not there was a contradiction between Exodus 20:5 and Ezekiel 18:20 as presented by Teg. In that light, I'd like to know if you stipulate to the following:

1. In the recording of Exodus 20:5 which took place circa 1200 BC, a relative time period was expressed during which the iniquities of the fathers would be visited upon the sons (3 to 4 generations).

2. The relative time period expressed in Exodus 20:5 had expired by the time of Ezekiel 18:20, circa 600 AD.

3. Therefore, the recording of Ezekiel 18:20 approximately 1800 years after Exodus 20:5, that the sons shall not bear the iniquities of their fathers, reconciles with that which had been recorded in Exodus 20:5.

P.S. - The audience in Exodus 20:5 is the Israelites in the desert of Sinai.
 
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Re: Tony1

*Originally posted by razz
"I contend that we are both atheists, I just believe in one less god than you do. When you understand why you dismiss all other possible gods, then you will know why I dismiss yours."
*

Neat quote.
If it is intended as a reflection of your own thoughts, then I have a simple question.

Since when does believing in 3,999,999,999,999 gods make you an atheist?

*Originally posted by tiassa
It has been pointed out a few times that the two passages in question represent contradictory states: one in which the sons shall bear the iniquities of the fathers, and one in which they shall not.
*

That has in fact been pointed out.
However, in one case the sons do not bear the iniquities of their fathers, in the other the Lord visits the iniquities of the fathers on the sons.

In essence, we have two truth tables...
  1. T
    sons bear iniquities
    F
    sons do not bear iniquities.
  2. T
    Lord visits iniquities on sons
    F
    Lord does not visit iniquities on sons

You say the truth tables are identical, producing a contradiction.
I say they are not identical, thus no contradiction.

*The nearest I can figure here is that you're not perceiving the words the same as I do.*

I don't, and they actually are different.

*I wrote, If the appearance of contradiction is resolved by a different perspective on the text, please offer it instead of just tell us the idea exists.*

tiassa, tiassa, tiassa you're still laboring under the illusion that I have to come up with a resolution to the contradiction.
I don't.
You actually have to explain how "visit" and "bear" mean the same thing, even though they look and are different, even considering your earlier point about subjects and objects.

*Well, as presented in the topic post, the two passages are contradictory.*

As presented in the Bible, they're not.

*The easiest way for you to communicate why that appearance is false is to tell us why the two passages that represent contradictory states do not actually represent contradictory states.*

Maybe, but I'm not concerned about the appearance of things.
There is no actual contradiction since the two passages do not represent contradictory states, even tho you might repeat that concept in every post.

*If you're suggesting that nobody has pointed out what the contradiction is, then I seriously find myself doubting your reading skills.*

I don't doubt that some case has been elaborately constructed to simulate a contradiction.
That much effort is usually indicative of some construction project involving straw in a homuncular configuration.

*Can you answer the contradiction presented or not?*

The contradiction presented is indeed a contradiction, however it has nothing to do with the Bible.
I see no reason to resolve your own contradiction.
There isn't one in the Bible, either, so again, there is nothing to resolve.
 
At least you tried, Tony1

In essence, we have two truth tables...

1. T sons bear iniquities
F sons do not bear iniquities.

2. T Lord visits iniquities on sons
F Lord does not visit iniquities on sons

You say the truth tables are identical, producing a contradiction.
I say they are not identical, thus no contradiction.
The two statements represent contradictory states.

1. The sons will bear the iniquities (that the Lord visits upon them).
2. The sons will not bear the iniquities.

The hair you're splitting between bear and visit ignores the grammatical subjects of the sentences and ignores what the actual words mean when put together in that order. The sentences represent contradictory states, and you can't avoid that.
tiassa, tiassa, tiassa you're still laboring under the illusion that I have to come up with a resolution to the contradiction.
I don't.
You actually have to explain how "visit" and "bear" mean the same thing, even though they look and are different, even considering your earlier point about subjects and objects.
Tony, Tony, Tone. Are you illiterate? Seriously? I didn't figure you were since you can write a complete sentence, but why is it that you're once again paring down the considerations? I've accused you of shortening citations to change their meaning, and now you reduce citations to separate individual words so that you can focus on the fact that the individual words are not the same.

The sons shall bear the iniquities that the Lord visits on them.

Do you understand the relationship between visit and bear yet? If you can't, it's not my problem.

:rolleyes:,
Tiassa :cool:
 
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