Your entire analysis is pathetic, especially when accounting that the people who wrote the gospels were not as educated in the Old Testament as the Rabbis of the time. Some were fishermen, another was a tax collector, and so forth. The Rabbis would logically be the ones who would understood the prophecies better than anyone else and one Rabbi named Paul did write some of the letters in the New Testament, but before that he persecuted the church of God. What did it benefit him to betray his Jewish roots, be put in jail, and persecuted for Christ when he was enjoying his status as a Rabbi for the Jewish cause? Consider also that there were no printing presses, and the Torah was in the hands of a select few.
Just to be fastidious, the term "gospels" most commonly refers to the 4 books in the New Testament that give accounts of Jesus's life (Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John). Old Testament people didn't write the gospels (see your opening sentence).
But now to analyze your apology seriously: you say that my argument is weak because the ones writing in the fulfillments were more learned than those who first spoke them. Hm. Not sure how this is a counter argument at all, in fact it seems to support my analysis; if gospel authors were as learned as you say, they would be even more aware of what they had to write in in order to fulfill the prophecies. (It would have been a more effective objection to say that the gospel writers weren't learned, as they would then have no way to say they were influenced by earlier prophecies and I wouldn't be able to make this suspicion in the first place.) Aside from all of this, we are talking about prophecies of God here. It wouldn't matter at all the level of education for the tools God chose to speak his prophecies through; the education lies in the source, namely God. So that also is not a very good attempt at an egress from my analysis as a plausible one. That didn't work out as well as you thought, huh?
Well that's okay, you give another reason below, let's look at that one. "Consider also that there were no printing presses, and the Torah was in the hands of a select few." Now this seems like a much more fitting objection backing the claim that the writers weren't learned, because if the writers WERE learned, as you say, then they would be the very ones that had this esoteric access to ancient scripts. I think that it is obvious that they were learned, because they could read and write (a self-evident observation). So, they would have been able to read the ancient scripts, and therefore would have been aware of what prophecies needed to be written in as fulfilled. So not only does this second reason betray your first, but it only testifies to my original analysis as well. Thanks for the supporting points.
But let's not stop there, oh no! I should give reasons for why some think, including me, that the gospel authors (not Old Testament people) were intentionally trying to fulfill scriptures in order to portray Jesus as the prophesied one. My reasoning is very in line with Christopher Hitchens's, though I differ from him at points, and he says it more eloquently than I can, so I will be quoting to you a passage from his book, God is Not Great. This is a long quote, but is filled with points I think you owe it to yourself to consider:
The man said:"...if you pick up any of the four Gospels and read them at random, it will not be long before you learn that such and such an action or saying, attributed to Jesus, was done so that an ancient prophecy should come true...If it should seem odd that an action should be deliberately performed in order that a foretelling be vindicated, that is because it is odd. And it is necessarily odd because, just like the Old Testament, the "New" one is also a work of crude carpentry, hammered together long after its purported events, and full of improvised attempts to make things come out right."
[Dang, that is quite a claim Mr. Hitchens. Can you back it up?
Mr. Hitchens: Yes I can...
Watch this, you are going to love this part...]
"However, he [speaking of Mel Gibson's claim that his anti-Semitic depiction of the Jews in his 2004 film, The Passion of the Christ, was based on the reports of "eyewitnesses."] fell into the same error as do the Christians, in assuming that the four Gospels were in any sense a historical record. Their multiple authors--none of whom published anything until many decades after the Cruicifixion--cannot agree on anything of importance. Matthew and Luke cannot concur on the Virgin Birth or the genealogy of Jesus. They flatly contradict each other on the "Flight into Egypt," Matthew saying that Joseph was "warned in a dream" to make an immediate escape and Luke saying that all three stayed in Bethlehem until Mary's "purification according to the laws of Moses," which would make it forty days, and then went back to Nazareth via Jerusalem...The Gospel according to Luke states that the miraculous birth occurred in a year when the Emperor Caesar Augustus ordered a census for the purpose of taxation, and that this happened at a time when Herod reigned in Judaea and Quirinius was governor of Syria...but Herod died for years "BC," and during his rulership the governor of Syria was not Quirinius. There is no mention of any Augustan census by any Roman historian, but the Jewish chronicler Josepheus mentions one that did occur--without the onerous requirement for people to return to their places of birth, and six years after the birth of Jesus is supposed to have taken place. This is, all of it, quite evidently a garbled and oral-based reconstruction undertaken some considerable time after the "fact." The scribes cannot even agree on the mythical elements: they disagree wildly about the Sermon on the Mount, the anointing of Jesus, the treachery of Judas, and Peter's haunting "denial." Most astonishingly, they cannot converge on a common account of the Crucifixion or the Resurrection."
So much for a harmony of said prophecies. But let's listen to what he has to say concerning those in a bit more detail:
Still the man said:"Notwithstanding all that, the jumbled "Old" Testament prophecies indicate that the Messiah will be born in the city of David, which seems indeed to have been Bethlehem. However, Jesus's parents were apparently from Nazareth and if they had a child he was most probably delivered in that town. Thus a huge amount of fabrication--concerning Augustus, Herod, and Quirinius--is involved in confecting the census tale and moving the nativity scene to Bethlehem (where, by the way, no "stable" is ever mentioned). But why do all this at all, since a much easier fabrication would have had him born in Bethlehem in the first place, without any needless to-do? The very attempts to bend and stretch the story may be inverse proof that someone of later significance was indeed born, so that in retrospect, and to fulfill the prophecies, the evidence had to be massaged to some extent. But then even my attempt to be fair and open-minded in this case is subverted by the Gospel of John, which seems to suggest that Jesus was neither born in Bethlehem nor descended from King David...Thus, and as usual, religion arouses suspicion by trying to prove too much."
I'll stop there, and that is to my aching regret as I am leaving out other wonderful bits that would further support my analysis as one that is highly probable, not pathetic in the slightest. If this is insufficient for you still, I have plenty more to throw out here.