James R, All other Relativists and most importantly "ALL READERS FOLLOWING THIS THREAD BUT HAVE NOT POSTED"
In the following attachment you will find the response of an independant physicist from the U of Texas - "Ask a Physicist" web site.
Please note that the first paragraph is a precise answer to the conditions specified by my presentation. As I have claimed the situation is symmetrical and reciprocity mandates that there is no affect on clocks due to relative velocity. The only affects are as a consequence of acceleration and energy change of one clock differentiated by a non-acclerated clock.
Note also that energy in my theory is the basis of time and I state that accleration and gravity do alter the illusion of time. Time is a consequence (property) of an energetic space and not as time in a 4th dimension subject to alteration by relative velocity.
In the following two paragraphs, he reverts to a general discussion of non-inertial affects but they have not been contested here in that they involve forces of acceleration, hence changes in energy of one clock vs the other clock, hence have no bearing on the test as presented.
All synchronization and all data taken in my presentation are in inertial frames only and hence only paragraph #1 applies to the issues at hand in this thread.
His response is absolutely correct and mimics my claims in every respect.
SORRY GUYS YOU LOSE. All your hype and distortion have been for naught and guess what old MacM isn't so stupid after all.
How does it feel to be put in your place by an ignorant, stupid, febble minded, uneducated old man that lacks basic understanding of Relativity, that is living in a fantasy land?
http://www.sciforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=3308&stc=1
Now to be fair as I always have been I will conceed that my presentation has not focused as well on the root issue which was started in my "3 Clocks Paradox" thread over 1 1/2 years ago.
The issue then and the issue now is the invalidity of the t2 = t1 (1 - v^2/ c^2)^.5 time dilation formula. Not that clocks may under some circumstances accumulate different amounts of times.
In that respect I have reviewed some comments made in this thread which IF taken out of the overall context of prior posts does not properly convey the meaning. I would expect that regular members here that have debated this issue should not have been confused by it but others that may be reading only this thread may be.
That is that the statement that "A twin traveling at relative velocity will not return younger than his brother". That statement was made in the context of "Due to relative velocity". This is not a change in position but a clarification of other posts I have made regarding this issue.
Further to eliminate this issue and to return to the entire point of this discussion which is the lack of relavistic velocity having an affect on time and the invalidity of the time dilation formula itself.
Please in the future address this case as where both clocks A & B acclerate away from each other at equal rates and coast upon seeing the preagreed doppler shift in their respective communication light beams.
You now have the precise condition of my complaint without the diversion of there having been some differential in terms of acceleration (energy change) in one clock vs the other.
We are now strictly dealing with relative velocity and the formula in relativity which IS INVALID.
In the following attachment you will find the response of an independant physicist from the U of Texas - "Ask a Physicist" web site.
Please note that the first paragraph is a precise answer to the conditions specified by my presentation. As I have claimed the situation is symmetrical and reciprocity mandates that there is no affect on clocks due to relative velocity. The only affects are as a consequence of acceleration and energy change of one clock differentiated by a non-acclerated clock.
Note also that energy in my theory is the basis of time and I state that accleration and gravity do alter the illusion of time. Time is a consequence (property) of an energetic space and not as time in a 4th dimension subject to alteration by relative velocity.
In the following two paragraphs, he reverts to a general discussion of non-inertial affects but they have not been contested here in that they involve forces of acceleration, hence changes in energy of one clock vs the other clock, hence have no bearing on the test as presented.
All synchronization and all data taken in my presentation are in inertial frames only and hence only paragraph #1 applies to the issues at hand in this thread.
His response is absolutely correct and mimics my claims in every respect.
SORRY GUYS YOU LOSE. All your hype and distortion have been for naught and guess what old MacM isn't so stupid after all.
How does it feel to be put in your place by an ignorant, stupid, febble minded, uneducated old man that lacks basic understanding of Relativity, that is living in a fantasy land?
http://www.sciforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=3308&stc=1
Now to be fair as I always have been I will conceed that my presentation has not focused as well on the root issue which was started in my "3 Clocks Paradox" thread over 1 1/2 years ago.
The issue then and the issue now is the invalidity of the t2 = t1 (1 - v^2/ c^2)^.5 time dilation formula. Not that clocks may under some circumstances accumulate different amounts of times.
In that respect I have reviewed some comments made in this thread which IF taken out of the overall context of prior posts does not properly convey the meaning. I would expect that regular members here that have debated this issue should not have been confused by it but others that may be reading only this thread may be.
That is that the statement that "A twin traveling at relative velocity will not return younger than his brother". That statement was made in the context of "Due to relative velocity". This is not a change in position but a clarification of other posts I have made regarding this issue.
Further to eliminate this issue and to return to the entire point of this discussion which is the lack of relavistic velocity having an affect on time and the invalidity of the time dilation formula itself.
Please in the future address this case as where both clocks A & B acclerate away from each other at equal rates and coast upon seeing the preagreed doppler shift in their respective communication light beams.
You now have the precise condition of my complaint without the diversion of there having been some differential in terms of acceleration (energy change) in one clock vs the other.
We are now strictly dealing with relative velocity and the formula in relativity which IS INVALID.
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