exchemist
Valued Senior Member
I realise you are not responding to me, but since you ask and there may be other readers who wonder about this, photon emission arises by means of something called the "transition dipole moment": https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transition_dipole_moment, to which I have drawn your attention before.Exactly, and then only if they are closely related in terms of frequency and wave-length, recall how difficult it was to jam signals in the second World War. Also, since waves do not recoil but only interfere, how does this whole question of photon emission arise? No recoil? What about the conservation of energy and momentum? Further, the rate of photon emission has proven to be at least in the hundred terahertz range, as definitively proved by the new optical atomic clocks. How do two waves, the incoming electromagnetic wave, and the electron wave-function 'interfere with each other to produce this kind of photon emission? A large part of quantum mechanics has to be taken on blind faith, and a deep belief in the absolute veracity of the mathematical systems used. How can one use imaginary numbers and get a real result? Its like saying 'pigs can fly'. The truth is pigs cannot fly, the trot around on their little trotters. Just that the circumstance exists where I can state: " Pigs can fly." Does not mean that they actually do fly!
Both linear and angular momentum are conserved during the emission or absorption of a photon by an electron, as well as energy of course. The conservation of angular momentum is one of the features that determines the "selection rules" in spectroscopy. A photon has 1 unit of angular momentum, so the total angular momentum of the electron that absorbs or emits must change by one unit. This is why s ->p transitions are allowed but s -> s transitions are forbidden, as observed in the line spectra of atoms.
As James R says, a free electron cannot absorb or emit a photon, in part because a free electron has no way to change its angular momentum. It is a spin 1/2 particle and this cannot change. When it is in a bound state in an atom, it can have varying amounts of orbital angular momentum as well, so this difficulty does not arise. Furthermore, if it is in the presence of a magnetic field, e.g. from other electrons, or even the atomic nucleus, it can change the orientation of its spin relative to the field, say +1/2 to -1/2 relative to the field, i.e. changing its angular momentum by one unit, so this gives a further range of possibilities for absorption or emission. Cs and Rb atomic clocks make use of such transitions, which involve emission and absorption of photons in the microwave region of the EM spectrum.
As for your remarks about frequency, again as James R says, the frequency of emitted and absorbed photons depends entirely on the energy difference between the intial and final states of the electron. In the hydrogen atom (the simplest atomic quantum system) there are many different sets of spectral lines, depending on which atomic orbital is a the lower one involved, named Lyman, Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, Pfund etc. after the scientists that originally characterised them. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hydrogen_spectral_series. While the lines in the Lyman series are in the UV, those in the Brackett and Pfund series are in the far infra red, i.e. at far lower frequency. So the main Lyman lines have wavelengths of the order of 100nm, i.e. 3,000THz, whereas those of the Pfund series are of the order of 5,000nm i.e. 60THz.
As I say, though, atomic clocks however utilise transitions, not between orbital of different principal quantum number like those I have mentioned for hydrogen, but between level of hyperfine splitting in far heavier atoms. I explained how these arise in post 47 of this thread: https://www.sciforums.com/threads/what-if-newton-was-not-wrong.166576/page-3#post-3739164. in which I was correcting the misconceptions of somebody called Dilip James. Whoever he may be.
Last edited: