The Pacific Paradox is not big. At least not bigger than the Arctic Paradox. Robert Muir Wood debunked this argument in only 1 sentence 33 years ago:
(Robert Muir Wood,
Is the Earth getting bigger?, New Scientist, 8 February 1979, page 387)
Muir Wood's "refutation" of Carey re: the Pacific is baloney and, to anticipate a later topic, a strawman.
This is what Muir Wood wrote in the article you linked: "...Professor Carey even argued that two pieces of accepted data about the Pacific Ocean, that its size has decreased while its perimeter has increased, were irreconciliable; but a simple demonstration can show that
once larger than a hemisphere (the approximate size of the Pacific Ocean) the perimeter does decrease while the area increases." (Emphasis added.)
Unfortunately, Muir Wood's "simple demonstration" that the Pacific perimeter decreases while the area of the Pacific increases is valid
only if the Pacific actually occupies more than a hemisphere (as Panthalassa in the Permian would have). Unfortunately, he is simply wrong when he says "the approximate size of the Pacific Ocean" is equal to or greater than a hemisphere; it is not. The surface area of the modern earth is 510 million sq km. The surface area of the Pacific is 165 million sq km, and even if you add
all of the Southern Ocean (including the area south of the Atlantic and Indian Oceans), the Pacific would still be only 185 million sq km. You don't need a PhD to realize that the Pacific would have to be 255 million sq km in order to occupy a hemisphere. In short, the Pacific is significantly less than a hemisphere; it covers only about one-third of the globe. So, while Muir Wood's argument may have been valid for Pantalassa during the initial disruption of Pangaea, when Pantalassa still presumably covered more than a hemisphere on a constant-sized earth, say during the Triassic and Early Jurassic, it's
not valid for the Pacific, especially since the Cretaceous. I'll have more to say about all this when we turn to the Pacific Paradox.
Of course, Carey forgotting (willingly or not) that the Earth's surface is not flat, but is a sphere...
Two words: gaping gores. See paragraph 4 of
this.
Carey ignoring (willingly or not) Robert Muir Wood's debunk during two decades, Carey doing unsupported claim and straw man (with or without knowing it was a straw man) in his Arctic Paradox argument, have helped me to see him as a
crank in matter of Earth expansion.
Yes, the crank link is entertaining but does it really shed any light on any of this? BTW, why doesn't your link mention that global warming "hockey stick?"
I conclude that, in my opinion, he used a
straw man and was incompetent/untrustable.
If you want a good example of a straw man, then I refer you to
this.
Also, I can't recall any reputable scientist ever calling Carey "incompetent" or "untrustable," even those who most vehemently opposed or disagreed with him on expansion.
Well, before opening a new case/folder/subject, maybe we should finish/conclude the Arctic Paradox.
Thank you!
As for me, the conclusion is short : Carey made two claims ("all of the continents except Antarctica have converged on the Arctic [...] since the Permian", "since the Permian [...] the Arctic has been an area of extension"), that appear to be unsupported, and false/wrong according to mainstream science.
How can you still say that Carey's claim that "all of the continents except Antarctica have converged on the Arctic" appears "to be unsupported, and false/wrong according to mainstream science?" Did you even look at the
Irving maps? All of the continents, except Antarctica, move north! Now, if you're quibbling over the phrase "converged on the Arctic," as though Carey was saying that they "met in the Arctic," then obviously that is semantical doubletalk. So let me try again: on a globe, the longitudes (i.e. the lines that run north and south) "converge" at the poles. Therefore, if the continents drift north, they must follow the longitudes, which means they must "converge on the north pole." So if you're suggesting that since North America and Eurasia were not circum-polar during the Permian (at least according to PT), then yes, strictly speaking, they did not converge on the "Arctic," which didn't exist yet. But they did converge on the North Pole, and there's no denying that. So, we could've avoid all of this had Carey simply written "all of the continents except Antarctica have converged on the
North Pole, which is currently occupied by the Arctic and has been (according to plate tectonics) since the
Early Cretaceous. But, of course, I, Carey, maintain that on an expanding earth the continents didn't move northward at all. Rather, the latitudes on North America and Eurasia moved south as the earth expanded more in the southern hemisphere than in the north."
With respect to Carey's claim that "since the Permian [...] the Arctic has been an area of extension," which you also say is "unsupported, and false/wrong according to mainstream science," I can finally provide links to the articles that I cited earlier which refer to Arctic extension now that I've made the grade on this blog by reaching the "20-post threshold." But, before doing so, we probably need to clear up one more semantical problem. In saying that the "Arctic has been an area of extension" since the Permian, Carey was not claiming extension has been
continuous and on-going since the Permian. He was simply saying that since the Permian, the only tectonic activity that has occurred in the Arctic has been extensional (i.e. divergent) and there has been
no compressional (i.e. convergent) activity.
Here are the articles about Arctic tectonics that I previously cited: