This is mainly directed at Christians, to shake up and measure faith after doing a little extra reading of my own:
Romans 1
3concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,
Now according to this text, Jesus Christ would have had to be born by the sperm of Joseph for this prophecy to be fulfilled. Contrarily, Jesus was born by a miraculous event. If the seed of David never entered Mary, I ask, how is this prophecy at all fulfilled?
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Romans 3
22even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference;
Isaiah 53:5
But He was wounded for our transgressions, He was bruised for our iniquities; The chastisement for our peace was upon Him, And by His stripes we are healed.
Now according to Isaiah, Jesus Christ died for our sins, PERIOD. As that is the case, what exactly is the point of having to believe to be saved if your sins are already paid for?
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Romans 7
1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? 2For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man. 4Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another--to Him who was raised from the dead, that we should bear fruit to God. 5For when we were in the flesh, the sinful passions which were aroused by the law were at work in our members to bear fruit to death. 6But now we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by, so that we should serve in the newness of the Spirit and not in the oldness of the letter.
There is simply no human being on earth who understands what the writer is going on about here Why is there such ambiguity, for a writer imbued with the Holy Spirit?
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Matthew 13
24 "But in those days, after that tribulation, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; 25the stars of heaven will fall, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken. 26Then they will see the Son of Man coming in the clouds with great power and glory. 27And then He will send His angels, and gather together His elect from the four winds, from the farthest part of earth to the farthest part of heaven.
The problem with this verse is that it is all too consistent with a flat earth mentality. For the stars in heaven to fall would be a very bad thing for one, but there is a worse problem in saying He will come in the clouds. The mentality of that day, as it still is, is that heaven is up. Astronomy has shown that there are no pearly gates up there. The part about 'four winds' is also consistent with the 'four corners of the earth' mentality in Revelations, also reflective of a flat-earth ideology.
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Mark 13
30Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place.
Obviously this prophecy never happened, but keep this in mind as we take a look at the next verse:
32 "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.
Now there are two main things wrong with this declaration. Firstly, how can God know, but not know simultaneously? As we know from Colossians 2:9, in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily, and therefore arguments that say that His human part did not know, but that His Divine self knew are incorrect. The second flaw here is that in the earlier verse (30), He claims to know WHEN He will be coming, but then contradicts by saying that "no one knows".
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Matthew 12:40
For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
No need to take the calculator out, this obviously means that He was resurrected on the FOURTH day and not the 3rd, as the Gospels claim.
Well, I expect some attempts will be made to explain these, and I patiently await them.
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http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/paul_carlson/nt_contradictions.html
Romans 1
3concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,
Now according to this text, Jesus Christ would have had to be born by the sperm of Joseph for this prophecy to be fulfilled. Contrarily, Jesus was born by a miraculous event. If the seed of David never entered Mary, I ask, how is this prophecy at all fulfilled?
-------
Romans 3
22even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference;
Isaiah 53:5
But He was wounded for our transgressions, He was bruised for our iniquities; The chastisement for our peace was upon Him, And by His stripes we are healed.
Now according to Isaiah, Jesus Christ died for our sins, PERIOD. As that is the case, what exactly is the point of having to believe to be saved if your sins are already paid for?
----------
Romans 7
1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives? 2For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man. 4Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another--to Him who was raised from the dead, that we should bear fruit to God. 5For when we were in the flesh, the sinful passions which were aroused by the law were at work in our members to bear fruit to death. 6But now we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by, so that we should serve in the newness of the Spirit and not in the oldness of the letter.
There is simply no human being on earth who understands what the writer is going on about here Why is there such ambiguity, for a writer imbued with the Holy Spirit?
--------------
Matthew 13
24 "But in those days, after that tribulation, the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; 25the stars of heaven will fall, and the powers in the heavens will be shaken. 26Then they will see the Son of Man coming in the clouds with great power and glory. 27And then He will send His angels, and gather together His elect from the four winds, from the farthest part of earth to the farthest part of heaven.
The problem with this verse is that it is all too consistent with a flat earth mentality. For the stars in heaven to fall would be a very bad thing for one, but there is a worse problem in saying He will come in the clouds. The mentality of that day, as it still is, is that heaven is up. Astronomy has shown that there are no pearly gates up there. The part about 'four winds' is also consistent with the 'four corners of the earth' mentality in Revelations, also reflective of a flat-earth ideology.
------
Mark 13
30Assuredly, I say to you, this generation will by no means pass away till all these things take place.
Obviously this prophecy never happened, but keep this in mind as we take a look at the next verse:
32 "But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.
Now there are two main things wrong with this declaration. Firstly, how can God know, but not know simultaneously? As we know from Colossians 2:9, in Him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily, and therefore arguments that say that His human part did not know, but that His Divine self knew are incorrect. The second flaw here is that in the earlier verse (30), He claims to know WHEN He will be coming, but then contradicts by saying that "no one knows".
-------------
Matthew 12:40
For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
No need to take the calculator out, this obviously means that He was resurrected on the FOURTH day and not the 3rd, as the Gospels claim.
Well, I expect some attempts will be made to explain these, and I patiently await them.
------
http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/paul_carlson/nt_contradictions.html