Chaos amplifies the indeterminacy that is hardwired into the universe. A system existing in a state of criticality between determinism and randomness. In a strictly deterministic universe chaos wouldn't exist. Or it would only be an illusion based on our own limited knowledge, which is what you claim.
Why do you think chaos would not exist in a strictly deterministic universe? Chaos is merely where a slight change in starting conditions leads to significant difference in the output. This could be the case in any system, whether deterministic or not. Why do you think otherwise, when almost all literature on the subject of chaos is with regard deterministic systems?
A chaotic system therefore is no indication whatsoever of whether a system is deterministic or not, and can not therefore be used as evidence for either.
And there would be no illusion: it would be chaotic. Sure, a chaotic system is unpredictable in the long-term, but this is no indication of deterministic or not.
I think you are confusing indeterminacy with mere unpredictability.
It's not certain that caused events like random systems, chaos systems, or quantum states are following any specific law at all. If they were then predictability of such systems would be a cinch. Reality by and large doesn't behave like that. For example while the behavior of a planet orbiting a star is entirely predictable and lawlike, add one more planet and suddenly you have an enormously complex and unpredictable system. This is the famous Three Body Problem:
I find this confusing: you say that you don't think it's certain that chaotic systems are following any specific law at all, and then you raise the 3-body problem which, even if modelled in a computer (where the laws are clearly defined and deterministic) you end up with a chaotic system.
There is no issue with predictability within a computer that knows the precise starting conditions, but in reality it is not possible - hence we end up with unpredictability, even in a deterministic process. Imagine the computer model of the 3-body problem where you only get the starting conditions 99.9% accurate... you will find it quickly unpredictable... and chaotic.
So I'm really not sure what point you were thinking of making here with that example.
As for quantum states (and randomness) - this could either be genuine randomness or a case of hidden variables. But either way, randomness can still be predictable probabilistically... e.g. we know an individual radioactive atom will decay on a random basis, but we know that if there is a group of them that half are likely to decay within their known half-life. We know if we roll a die that the randomness means it could land on any face, but it is still a randomness confined within a probability function.
This premise contradicts your original premise that everything has a cause. Are you now qualifying that premise by saying random things are uncaused?
No, I am qualifying it by saying that the only things that are uncaused are random.
I could have included this premise at the start, but I only put it in once the need to mention it arose.
One could, however, perhaps say that random things are uncaused... or at least the cause of the actual output is unknown (aka hidden variables). E.g. what causes the radioactive decay of a single atom? One could argue that it is caused to do so (but the causal chain up to that point is hidden), or one could argue that it the decay is uncaused. But it doesn't make any difference to the argument which you do.
And a flawed one at that based on your own previous premise.
How is this flawed? It is merely a qualification of a previous assumption.
Doesn't follow. We know that at the quantum level states are really inherently undetermined yet still caused. If this is possible at the micro level, what's to keep it from happening at the macro level?
This is a non sequitor, MR. You say it "doesn't follow" yet what follows has no bearing on what I had written. You'll have to explain your criticism here in more detail.
But not without preceding causes. I have reasons for the choices I make and numerous preferences predisposing more or less to make one choice over another. I may choose to drink Dr. Pepper rather than Coke, but the fact that this expresses a preference doesn't invalidate the fact that I make this choice.
But it does speak to whether the "choice" is actually genuine or merely a perception.
That was a flawed assumption. You say every event is caused and obeys the laws of the universe, and then assume that there are events (random) that are uncaused and that do not obey the laws of the universe. So which is it?
I have not said that random events are necessarily uncaused, nor have I said that they do not obey the laws of the universe. I have said that uncaused events are random, and they still do obey the laws of the universe. The laws just allow (as far as we can tell, whether through hidden variables or other means) for that randomness.
Sure it can, if we reject your premise that it can only be determined or random. We already have examples of undetermined events that are nonetheless caused. Remember how you yourself admitted causes only probablistically determine outcomes? Here you admit the possibility of caused events that nonetheless have a degree of indeterminacy in their outcome.
I'm baffled, MR: you're arguing to reject the premise by highlighting a case that is already incorporated within the premise. So yes, I admit the possibility of caused events that are inherently indeterminate (through probabilistic determinism), and that these caused events are not determined but random (within their probability function). So you point out a cause that is random, and then want to use it to reject a premise that states causes to be either determined or random.
So what are you actually trying to argue here, MR? I'm baffled.
Doesn't follow. Every passively caused event is also an active cause of future events. Otherwise we'd have a break in the chain of causation. A caused event that doesn't cause anything. And that is impossible.
What do you mean by "passively/actively caused" and how does it differ to merely "caused"? Otherwise this is another non-sequitor on your part.
Where does my argument result in a break in the chain? And where does it result in caused events not themselves being a future cause? Where are you picking up these unjustified conclusions?
That's my premise, from which only one conclusion can logically be drawn: Consciousness, while itself being caused, is also a cause of future events. Causality is always emerging anew in the present moment. And I'd venture to say that this is the only causality that really is.
What is your premise? And how does it result in a freewill that is anything other than a perception?
Your assumptions are both unfounded and contradictory. So this conclusion doesn't follow at all.
You have not shown them to be contradictory, and as for being unfounded, science supports them (at least so far).