Imply about what? The existence of religiously-motivated violence? Clearly it establishes a parameter space for such violence to occur in.
Correct about what? I think you've lost hold of your epistemological thread here. We were discussing motivation.
Again:
Some of you have been arguing that different people have different interpretations of religious instructions.
But you yet have to clarify what importance do you believe that this pluralism carries with it.
Different people have different interpretations of religious instructions - so?
Cutting to the chase here, such a claim would have to supported in some way by the didactic elements that such individuals draw on to support their claim. Unfortunately, in the case of religious violence, there is ample reason - and precedent - to conclude that such motivation exists.
Do you believe that in the absence of religious instruction, those same people in those same circumstances would
not use force against others or themselves?
Seeking to remove all motivation would certainly place our discussion in a similar place. Incidentally, what motivates greed?
In short, greed is fueled by ignorance of the true nature of oneself and others; or, in other words, greed is fueled by the ignorance of the true cause of suffering and ignorance of the true cause for the cessation of suffering.
People are greedy when they believe that in order to be happy, they need more material wealth, more respect from others, more fame, more beauty and such.
Among those causes would, in fact, be the weight that each individual gives such suggestion. This would be a most parsimonious explanation.
It is also a relativistic anything-goes explanation that excludes all scientific investigation of the issue.
Science concerns itself with cause and effect relationships.
If, as some posters have claimed in this thread, anything can cause anyone to do anything - then there is no room for scientific exploration and discussion of anything, including "religiously motivated violence."
:shrug: