But pregnancy itself is a risk of sexual contact. Don't blame a woman for a man's failure.
Of course pregnancy is a risk of sexual contact, for both parties. Birth control can be neglected or fail, and participants can lie about their protection, these are some of the reasons that abortions are relied upon, as a backup to some failed aspect of birth control. If we are going to allow the woman a mulligan for her misstep, then we should grant one for the man when the woman wishes to continue with the pregnancy.
But a man's failure is his own. Remember, this is an unintended pregnancy. After accounting for available methods of birth control, and the couple's decision made, a man must still account for his gametes.
A man can’t account for his gametes when they’re being held hostage by the woman. If she’s unwilling to return them, she should be required to take sole ownership and responsibility for them.
He had his say when he left his stuff laying around where it shouldn't be.
If it shouldn’t be there, then she should be more than happy to rid herself of the mess it created.
Your proposition requires a spectre of compelled termination. Forced abortion is invoked according to the suggestion that it is unfair for a man to suffer the consequences of not aborting: If he cannot have the result of the abortion she does not wish to have, as you've been arguing.
Life itself compels women to have abortions, most often for the same reason a man would request one of a woman, because they don’t want to become a parent at that time.
"There is no need", you say, "to consider a woman's risk and trauma associated with her pregnancy when the objective of the father is to stop the process before these conditions arise." In the case you are presenting, however, he isn't trying to help her with anything; he is, instead, demanding a stake in her medical decisions as a lever by which he might help himself. That is to say, he's not trying to help; he's trying to control her for his own purposes.
He’s demanding no stake in her medical decision, he is requesting to have the same right to not become a parent that she has. If she continues with the pregnancy, he currently loses that right and she assumes a tenfold risk to her own health. Regardless of his motive for her to terminate, agreeing to his request will medically do far less harm to herself. And as for control, her continuing with the pregnancy is not an exercise in control over him on her part?
This juvenile-sounding petulance pretty much sums up the manchild chauvinism that has permeated this corner of political discourse as long as I have encountered it. To the other, so is that thing you said to Iceaura:
When your reason fails, you can always be counted on to bring out the ideological tar and feathers.
Really? That's it? You brought straw to your own sausage party?
What the hell does the above non sequitur have to do with this:
Capracus said:
When should the life of a developing fetus be considered worth protecting? Conception? Degree of cognition? Full term?
Always. From before conception, even.
So?
Maybe you could attempt to make sense of the statement, since iceaura seems incapable or unwilling to do so itself.
Now, here you are, injecting particular rightist political language, and, really, nobody's surprised, given your tendency toward supremacist rhetoric. Additionally, the wavering back and forth doesn't work, and only reiterates the egocentrism at the heart of your pitch. If you want to call it "feticide", remember, then it applies throughout; you want him to be able to duck out if she doesn't commit "feticide" on his say-so.
It sees Nazis under its bed, and it struggles with vocabulary.
In medical use, the word "foeticide" is used simply to mean causing the death of the fetus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Foeticide#Use_during_legal_abortion
Since you seem to have Nazis on the brain, maybe you’d prefer a more sanitized term like Final Solution.
And we should take the moment to note explicitly: Termination is not without its risks to a woman. If "there is no need to consider a woman's risk and trauma associated with her pregnancy when the objective of the father is to stop the process before these conditions arise", we must consider the risks of termination. Your failure to do so is not insignificant; similarly, your question of selfishness overlooks the perils and tolls of pregnancy.
I’ve considered the risk of termination from the outset of the proposition. I’ve noted numerous times that termination is far less risky than a continued pregnancy. The only way for a woman to eliminate the risk of a continued pregnancy is to terminate it, its one of many reasons women choose to have abortions. Did you even bother to read the nonsense you generated above before you posted it?
Wrong. The sperm bank donor intends to contribute to reproduction under particular circumstances. The hapless father you're describing isn't actually trying to reproduce, but, rather, seeks to escape reproduction. That you can't tell the difference is significant of something relevant, to be certain, but we can probably set that analysis aside as a distraction, for now. Thus, to reiterate: Sperm cells, as such, are not in this case a contribution to a process, but waste irresponsibly left behind.
Sperm donors want to contribute their “waste” without having to be responsible for the pregnancies they generate. A man unwilling to become a father is functionally no different than a commercial sperm donor, except he's not be paid for his services.
The man acquires responsibilities and obligations, and the rights contingently associated with them. Abandoning them is not among those rights.
If a women has the right to abandon parenthood during the first half of a pregnancy, so should the man.
Yep. Suck it up, snowflake. There's no such thing as a free fuck, and the government can't give you one.
Well since most fucks don’t result in pregnancy, most fucks in this regard are free. Laws are changing all the time, so maybe the government will eventually come through on this one.
Why "first"? You haven't even addressed the relevance of the issue, when asked directly.
Why is it relevant when a fetus is granted protection? It might have something to do with when the law establishes a legal limit in pregnancy for the option of feticide/abortion/termination/baby killing. Did I leave any of your favorites out?
You mean "months after", not "when". Also, "abortion", not "feticide".
Irrelevant regardless. Her obvious right to control the inside of her own body, to protect herself against assault and serious - potentially lethal - injury, does not depend on her motives for exercising it.
I’m pro-feticide in this case, so my position is in the best medical interests of the woman. If a woman wishes to assume the added risk of a continued pregnancy over the objections of the man, then let her also assume sole responsibility for the outcome.