Logical Consistency of SR

Yes. Obviously. In logic, consistency is a formal statement about a proof calculus. Are you telling me that you didn't know this?

Formulate what consistency means.

Absurd. You've been shown incompetent with the very based methods of everything involved in SR reasoning, including an embarrassingly poor grasp of basic linear algebra. The fact that such attacks are doomed to fail is merely icing on the cake.

Yes. Obviously. In logic, consistency is a formal statement about a proof calculus.

No, this is pre-Einstein thinking.

This is basically the Hilbert program which was refuted by Godel.

Many here are still confined to this primitive standard like when they say self-consistent.

The modern standard is that of model theory where a theory is consistent iff it has a model.

A model is a semantic construct whereas a theory is a syntactic construct.

The two must be in sync or the theory is not consistent.
Still others get themselves all confused and claim experimental data is a model.

That is false. Once you proclaim a theory, you must provide a mathematical model to show its consistency according to Godel's completeness theorem.
 
Perhaps you'd like to remind the readers of this forum what the axioms of SR are.


They suggest rather that, as has already been shown to the first order of small quantities, the same laws of electrodynamics and optics will be valid for all frames of reference for which the equations of mechanics hold good.1 We will raise this conjecture (the purport of which will hereafter be called the ``Principle of Relativity'') to the status of a postulate, and also introduce another postulate, which is only apparently irreconcilable with the former, namely, that light is always propagated in empty space with a definite velocity c which is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.

http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/
 
Oh, Jack_. You're so wrong it's embarrassing.
Yes. Obviously. In logic, consistency is a formal statement about a proof calculus.

No, this is pre-Einstein thinking.
No, it's not. Besides the historical inaccuracy, you don't get to change the meaning of technical terms at your whim.
This is basically the Hilbert program which was refuted by Godel.
No, it's not. The result you're alluding to is that Gödel (note the umlaut) proved that a sufficiently rich system could not be ($$\omega$$-)consistent and at the same time be complete.

But completeness and consistency is not the same thing. That you conflate them merely reinforces what we knew all along: You don't know anything about logic.
The modern standard is that of model theory where a theory is consistent iff it is satisfiable.
"Modern standard", my ass.

In logic, a theory means a (usually infinite) set of formulae. A theory has a model M, if this model satifies all the formulae (and their logical consequences per the proof calculus), according to the semantics of the logic. In that case, the theory is satisfiable. In the specific case of first-order logic, a theory is indeed consistent iff it has a model. But, in general, it is astoundingly wrong to conflate model satisfiability with logical consistency.

The fact that you don't know this tells me that you have never studied logic in any formal context, and are not qualified to make any utterances on the subject.
That is false. Once you proclaim a theory, you must provide a mathematical model to show its consistency according to Godel's completeness theorem.
Again, Gödel's completeness theorem is a statement about the expressiveness of first-order logic. I've not seen anything to suggest we're dealing with first-order logic, mainly because you haven't specified anything. Model theory is not the be-all end-all of logic, you know.
 
They suggest rather that, as has already been shown to the first order of small quantities, the same laws of electrodynamics and optics will be valid for all frames of reference for which the equations of mechanics hold good.1 We will raise this conjecture (the purport of which will hereafter be called the ``Principle of Relativity'') to the status of a postulate, and also introduce another postulate, which is only apparently irreconcilable with the former, namely, that light is always propagated in empty space with a definite velocity c which is independent of the state of motion of the emitting body.

http://www.fourmilab.ch/etexts/einstein/specrel/www/

Of course, these are not mathematical axioms, they are physical postulates. Try again?
 
Yes, I am just about done. You have not seen what I am really doing.
So you admit all the stuff you've provided thus far isn't right? You have repeatedly said in the past that you have given 'proof' here and yet now you're saying we haven't seen what you're actually doing? Sounds like you're making excuses for your epic failures.

You certainly would not follow a theory you could not prove is logically consistent.
No, I wouldn't follow a theory which is contradictory with itself or experiment. That's not the same as requiring proof its consistent. I accept areas of mathematics like number theory and functional analysis and yet they are not proven consistent, they can't be proven consistent. But being unable to prove something consistent is not the same as it being inconsistent. You'd grasp this difference if you'd actually studied logic.

Who would do that?

I mean come on, there are only two postulates.
I'm trying to work out if you're being sarcastic or you're just that stupid. You mention things like Godel's work and then complain about how it'd be silly to accept something which doesn't have proof its entirely consistent. The entire premise of Godel's work is you can have consistent logic systems which cannot prove themselves consistent or even proof every true statement true. Any sufficiently advanced area of mathematics (where 'sufficient' is in the sense Godel used it) cannot be proven consistent but this doesn't mean they are inconsistent. Your lack of understanding once again is made clear. You should really learn not to throw around concepts you don't understand, it only makes it easier for people to point out your ignorance and lies.

Uh, did you refute the twins argument? No.
I see you're working with your usual revisionist rose tinted view of your past threads.

What have you refuted of my math? Nothing.
You mean other than my repeated demonstration Lorentz transforms map light spheres to light spheres, that light cones depend only on their apex and not any given frame, that Lorentz transformations are defined on vectors not coordinates, that you don't need (or nor even can allow) time to pass 'before' applying a Lorentz transformation (in fact such a notion is mathematically meaningless in this context).

No, other than the dozens of posts covering and explaining all of those things I haven't refuted your work :rolleyes:. Shall I link to them again, since this is not the first time you've simply flat out lied and claimed no one has replied to your maths. Your behaviour goes far beyond naivety, you repeatedly lie to people about posts they've made! Do you think I don't remember what I've said to you? Do you think everyone such as myself, Pete, Rpenner, James etc don't remember we've posted tons and tons of mathematics which you never replied to and demonstrate you don't even understand? You must be knowingly lying because the only other explanations involve severe brain damage and an inability to form memories (ala Memento) or some kind of split personality who doesn't remember what the other has read. You know and I know I've replied to your mathematics. You know and I know you've not only failed to retort it but you've failed to even understand it. And you know and I know you're lying when you claim otherwise.

Now, if you have a consistency proof, that would be absolute evidence I am wrong.
You're wrong in perhaps two different ways. If Godel's work applies to Minkowski geometry then if there existed a proof it were consistent then it'd be inconsistent and thus you'd be right. The second way is that I don't need to jump through your hoops to prove you wrong, any logically valid method is fine and you've been presented with retorts and responses to all your claims and repeatedly been demonstrated to be wrong. You only start new threads like this when you're backed into yet another corner in a particular thread and you think you can wipe the slate clean by jumping to a new thread.

I mean, why would a large herd of humans follow a physical theory that has not been proven logically consistent?
For someone who claims to grasp logic sufficiently well to understand Godel's work you sure are terrible at it. You do realise that "I have proven it inconsistent" and "I have not proven it is consistent" are not synonymous.

Do not forget, all of your logic against me has been based on your assumption of the logical consistency of SR.
No, yet another example of your terrible grasp of logic. If you claim "Notion X is wrong because of reason Y" I do not need to prove Notion X or even assume it to demonstrate Y is not true. I didn't need to assume SR is true to disprove your claim Lorentz transformations don't map light spheres to light spheres. I needed the definition of a Lorentz transformation and the definition of a light sphere. Whether or not those two concepts later lead to a contradiction is irrelevant to the retort of your claim because I only needed to show a light sphere is mapped to a light sphere by a Lorentz transformation, I did not need to show the remaining structure in SR true.

I suggest you spent less time feeding your self delusions and lying about your understanding and more time actually learning. Try it, it can be quite rewarding.
 
So you admit all the stuff you've provided thus far isn't right? You have repeatedly said in the past that you have given 'proof' here and yet now you're saying we haven't seen what you're actually doing? Sounds like you're making excuses for your epic failures.

What are you talking about. I have not given my argument here.

Further, if what I have done is an epic failure, then go to my twins thread and indicate logically where it is wrong. Noone ever has anywhere.

You do not understand, but that is sufficient to take out SR. The logical decidability feature killed off reciprocal time dilation.


No, I wouldn't follow a theory which is contradictory with itself or experiment. That's not the same as requiring proof its consistent. I accept areas of mathematics like number theory and functional analysis and yet they are not proven consistent, they can't be proven consistent. But being unable to prove something consistent is not the same as it being inconsistent. You'd grasp this difference if you'd actually studied logic.

This shows your ignorance. Number theory has a model, they are called the natural numbers.

A theory is consistent iff it has a model.

There are non-standard models of number theory.

However, Godel showed number theory cannot prove all truths about the natural numbers even given an infinite number of axioms added.

Also, Godel proved any theory that contains number theory cannot prove its own consistency.

Hence, you must construct a model to prove consistency.


I'm trying to work out if you're being sarcastic or you're just that stupid. You mention things like Godel's work and then complain about how it'd be silly to accept something which doesn't have proof its entirely consistent. The entire premise of Godel's work is you can have consistent logic systems which cannot prove themselves consistent or even proof every true statement true. Any sufficiently advanced area of mathematics (where 'sufficient' is in the sense Godel used it) cannot be proven consistent but this doesn't mean they are inconsistent. Your lack of understanding once again is made clear. You should really learn not to throw around concepts you don't understand, it only makes it easier for people to point out your ignorance and lies.

Excellent, you have arrived at the conclusion that SR is not self consistent.

I see you are still confused confused about syntax and semantics. Syntax is the formal language you would use for your proof.

Here is the a corollary to 2nd incompleteness theorm.

This corollary of the second incompleteness theorem shows that there is no hope of proving, for example, the consistency of Peano arithmetic using any finitistic means that can be formalized in a theory the consistency of which is provable in Peano arithmetic
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gödel's_incompleteness_theorems

Now, this does not mean Peano arithmatic cannot be proven consistent. You just cannot use the first order predicate calculus to do it.

You must prove its consistency by showing it has a model. This is semantics.

This was a deep step since Godel cut off Hilbert's program where Hilbert thought everthing could simply be proven by some formal language.

So, humans needed a new way to "prove" consistency.

The completenes theorem achieved this objective and gave to humanity a new method to prove consistency when proof theory fails.


You mean other than my repeated demonstration Lorentz transforms map light spheres to light spheres, that light cones depend only on their apex and not any given frame, that Lorentz transformations are defined on vectors not coordinates, that you don't need (or nor even can allow) time to pass 'before' applying a Lorentz transformation (in fact such a notion is mathematically meaningless in this context).

You never mapped the stationary light sphere to the moving one. You tried and I broke you and rpenner's failed proof.

You did not satisfy the requirement that light is a constant distance r in the view of the moving frame.

Here is a hint on consistency and models.

You must show a model such that if the two origins are on light phones after a light emission when the origins are co-located and each would say to the other, light is a constant distance from the origin.

You then need to show this model satisfies both postulates.

No, other than the dozens of posts covering and explaining all of those things I haven't refuted your work :rolleyes:. Shall I link to them again, since this is not the first time you've simply flat out lied and claimed no one has replied to your maths. Your behaviour goes far beyond naivety, you repeatedly lie to people about posts they've made! Do you think I don't remember what I've said to you? Do you think everyone such as myself, Pete, Rpenner, James etc don't remember we've posted tons and tons of mathematics which you never replied to and demonstrate you don't even understand? You must be knowingly lying because the only other explanations involve severe brain damage and an inability to form memories (ala Memento) or some kind of split personality who doesn't remember what the other has read. You know and I know I've replied to your mathematics. You know and I know you've not only failed to retort it but you've failed to even understand it. And you know and I know you're lying when you claim otherwise.

Let's see the twins refutation you did not refute. You also assume if I did not respond you refuted me. Many times I simply do not respond because your answer is so silly.

Anyway, refute the twins argument. You never achieved that.

You're wrong in perhaps two different ways. If Godel's work applies to Minkowski geometry then if there existed a proof it were consistent then it'd be inconsistent and thus you'd be right. The second way is that I don't need to jump through your hoops to prove you wrong, any logically valid method is fine and you've been presented with retorts and responses to all your claims and repeatedly been demonstrated to be wrong. You only start new threads like this when you're backed into yet another corner in a particular thread and you think you can wipe the slate clean by jumping to a new thread.

Wrong, you are all caught up in Hilbert's program and cannot understand the new ways.

Like I said, Godel proved a theory is consistent iff it has a model. So, you simply need a model to prove SR consistent.

For someone who claims to grasp logic sufficiently well to understand Godel's work you sure are terrible at it. You do realise that "I have proven it inconsistent" and "I have not proven it is consistent" are not synonymous.

More logic from the ancient Hilbert's program.

No, yet another example of your terrible grasp of logic. If you claim "Notion X is wrong because of reason Y" I do not need to prove Notion X or even assume it to demonstrate Y is not true. I didn't need to assume SR is true to disprove your claim Lorentz transformations don't map light spheres to light spheres. I needed the definition of a Lorentz transformation and the definition of a light sphere. Whether or not those two concepts later lead to a contradiction is irrelevant to the retort of your claim because I only needed to show a light sphere is mapped to a light sphere by a Lorentz transformation, I did not need to show the remaining structure in SR true.

I only needed to show a light sphere is mapped to a light sphere by a Lorentz

OK, do this.

It will need to be a constant distance in the view of both frames. Everyone knows this is a sphere. Anything produced that is not a constant distance from the origin will not be a sphere.

Also, you will need to indicate a time in the stationary system when that occurs because if it is true, there must be a time when it is true.

Otherwise, there is no time when it is true.

Let me know how you do.
 
Jack_ has been officially warned for trolling.

Members are invited to report any post in which Jack_ claims that nobody has shown him how light spheres map to light spheres in a different frame of reference. If he does that again, he will be banned.
 
Jack_, you're spouting nonsense. Don't think that you can get out of this with a few minutes on Wikipedia.

I still challenge you to state the formal definition of logical consistency of special relativity. Obviously, you have something other than simply the consistency of the underlying mathematical structures in mind. Right?
 
Oh, Jack_. You're so wrong it's embarrassing.

No, it's not. Besides the historical inaccuracy, you don't get to change the meaning of technical terms at your whim.

No, it's not. The result you're alluding to is that Gödel (note the umlaut) proved that a sufficiently rich system could not be ($$\omega$$-)consistent and at the same time be complete.

But completeness and consistency is not the same thing. That you conflate them merely reinforces what we knew all along: You don't know anything about logic.

"Modern standard", my ass.

In logic, a theory means a (usually infinite) set of formulae. A theory has a model M, if this model satifies all the formulae (and their logical consequences per the proof calculus), according to the semantics of the logic. In that case, the theory is satisfiable. In the specific case of first-order logic, a theory is indeed consistent iff it has a model. But, in general, it is astoundingly wrong to conflate model satisfiability with logical consistency.

The fact that you don't know this tells me that you have never studied logic in any formal context, and are not qualified to make any utterances on the subject.

Again, Gödel's completeness theorem is a statement about the expressiveness of first-order logic. I've not seen anything to suggest we're dealing with first-order logic, mainly because you haven't specified anything. Model theory is not the be-all end-all of logic, you know.

Ah, the joy of having people around who actually know their sh*t! I've looked into logic quite a lot over the years and I've been feeling the same objections to Jack's garbage, but I could never have expressed it as elegantly and efficiently as you have.
 
What are you talking about. I have not given my argument here.
You've presented arguments on these forums in many threads. You have also said I/we haven't seen what you're really working on, which suggests you've not given us your 'A game' thus far. Are you now admitting your arguments thus far were insufficient?

The logical decidability feature killed off reciprocal time dilation.
Please stop saying things like 'logically decidability' when everyone, including yourself, knows you don't understand such things. Haven't you learnt by now you're not going to intimidate anyone with buzzwords?

Number theory has a model, they are called the natural numbers.

A theory is consistent iff it has a model.
Godel's work says any logic system capable of describing the natural numbers cannot prove itself consistent, unless it is inconsistent. Didn't you cover that when furiously Wiki'ing for things you don't understand?

This shows your ignorance. Number theory has a model, they are called the natural numbers.

A theory is consistent iff it has a model.

There are non-standard models of number theory.

However, Godel showed number theory cannot prove all truths about the natural numbers even given an infinite number of axioms added.

Also, Godel proved any theory that contains number theory cannot prove its own consistency.

Hence, you must construct a model to prove consistency.
But you aren't using the natural numbers to prove themselves consistent, you're having to assume the validity of some larger set of logic, which itself cannot prove itself consistent. It's an infinite regression. At some point you must assume something, which you cannot prove and which cannot prove itself since it is able to describe the natural numbers and thus comes into the realm of Godel's work. Do try and keep up.

Excellent, you have arrived at the conclusion that SR is not self consistent.
I see even when explained to you you don't understand the difference between "This is inconsistent" and "This is not proven to be consistent". There's no proof God doesn't exist but that doesn't mean he does.

I see you are still confused confused about syntax and semantics. Syntax is the formal language you would use for your proof.

Here is the a corollary to 2nd incompleteness theorm.

This corollary of the second incompleteness theorem shows that there is no hope of proving, for example, the consistency of Peano arithmetic using any finitistic means that can be formalized in a theory the consistency of which is provable in Peano arithmetic
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gö...eness_theorems

Now, this does not mean Peano arithmatic cannot be proven consistent. You just cannot use the first order predicate calculus to do it.

You must prove its consistency by showing it has a model. This is semantics.

This was a deep step since Godel cut off Hilbert's program where Hilbert thought everthing could simply be proven by some formal language.

So, humans needed a new way to "prove" consistency.

The completenes theorem achieved this objective and gave to humanity a new method to prove consistency when proof theory fails.
You'll forgive me if I don't think you're exactly the voice of knowledge when it comes to logic. We've seen you can't even do basic algebra and you obviously lie repeatedly about your knowledge, ability and education. Your ability to copy and paste things from Wikipedia doesn't mean you understand them or you're applying them properly.

You never mapped the stationary light sphere to the moving one. You tried and I broke you and rpenner's failed proof.
You never even demonstrated you grasp what the definition of a sphere is. You never 'broke' our replies. We mapped one sphere of the form $$\sum_{n=1}^{N} (x_{n}-X_{n})^{2} = c^{2}t^{2}$$ to another sphere $$\sum_{n=1}^{N} (\tilde{x}_{n}-\tilde{X}_{n})^{2} = c^{2}\tilde{t}^{2}$$. You are literally arguing against the equation of a sphere! If a set of points satisfy the equation I just gave then they form a sphere, no ifs, no buts. Proof you are wrong.

You did not satisfy the requirement that light is a constant distance r in the view of the moving frame.
The expression I just gave in term of tilde'd variables is the equation for a sphere which is the set of points which are a distance $$c\tilde{t}$$ from the point $$\underline{\tilde{X}}$$. That is the DEFINITION. If a set of points satisfy that for some $$\tilde{t}$$ and $$\tilde{X}$$ then they are forming a sphere.

Let's see the twins refutation you did not refute. You also assume if I did not respond you refuted me. Many times I simply do not respond because your answer is so silly.
No, you didn't respond because you didn't understand my posts on tangent spaces, light cones, fibre bundles, vector spaces, Lie groups and all the things you claimed you understand but don't.

Anyway, refute the twins argument. You never achieved that.
You have failed to understand the equation for a sphere relevant to your initial claims, moving on to another example only serves to let you pretend no one responded to your claims about light spheres. Until you demonstrate you can understand one thing I'm not going to overtax your brain by discussing another.

Wrong, you are all caught up in Hilbert's program and cannot understand the new ways.
'The new ways'? What precisely do you mean? Do you think I was taught maths in the 1920s or something? And I hardly think its wise you try to insult others for not being up to speed, you don't even know the equation of a sphere!

I only needed to show a light sphere is mapped to a light sphere by a Lorentz

OK, do this.
As JamesR says, if you repeat (for about the 20th time!) this lie I'm going to report your post and then your suspensions can be made a ban. I have absolutely no idea what you hope to achieve by lying to me about posts I made but there's only so long anyone is going to tolerate it. You claim you want discussion but when you lie like that, so blatantly and so often you demonstrate you don't deserve anything more than contempt.
 
OK, it looks like I am totally wrong.

It must be the case the the light sphere in the stationary frame is mapped to the light sphere in the moving frame.

Could someone please explain this to me?
 
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Jack_, you're spouting nonsense. Don't think that you can get out of this with a few minutes on Wikipedia.

I still challenge you to state the formal definition of logical consistency of special relativity. Obviously, you have something other than simply the consistency of the underlying mathematical structures in mind. Right?

I have already said it.

Anyone here should demand a model.

Why dont you?
 
Does anyone here have the following model?

I have witnessed here superior intelligence to my own.

I can't wait to learn.

If two folks are on a light phone after a common light emission for the origins of the frames, they will claim light is proceeding spherically from their respective light emission points.

I am all confused.

How does this happen?

Also, if light has acquired r in the stationary frame, how far has light proceeded in the moving frame?

This is all SR and should have an answer.
 
Jack, this has been shown to you several times before. Go and do your homework.

If you have a specific question about any previous explanation, feel free to post it.
 
Jack, this has been shown to you several times before. Go and do your homework.

If you have a specific question about any previous explanation, feel free to post it.

I have looked and cannot see it.

I must be a bonehead.

Why don't you intelligent folks post it here so all cranks can see it.

That way you can link to this for any CRANKS.

I have asked a few questions of you folks, post the answers.
 
Jack, this has been shown to you several times before. Go and do your homework.

If you have a specific question about any previous explanation, feel free to post it.

If light has acquired r in the stationary frame, how far has light proceeded in the moving frame?
 
How many explanations do you need, Jack_? Go back and review virtually any thread you've started since you arrived here. In it, you'll find the explanation you need - probably several times over in different ways.
 
If light has acquired r in the stationary frame, how far has light proceeded in the moving frame?

That question has also been answered several times.

If you have a specific question about a specific explanation, please quote and link to the explanation you are asking about.

I have looked and cannot see it.
I must be a bonehead.
I agree that you are a bonehead. But, you may redeem yourself if you review your previous threads and this time read the responses.
 
Jack_ has been banned for 2 weeks for continuing to troll following an explicit warning.
 
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