I suppose you are talking about where it says “your right hands possess”. In Arabic lexicon, the words translated to “your right hands possess” are also known as “wards” or “people in protected status”. It does not mean slaves or bondman or woman. But if you want to go down that route and orget the lexicon, this could apply to slaves because they are in a protected state, with everything provided for them and they are able to have their own house with their own family.
The "right hand" is a clear allusion to force, as you well know. And were not slaves - those in this "protected state", which sounds very much like
dhimmitude to me - abused in islamic society? They quite clearly were at innumerable points.
Another thing this verse does is support the argument forwarded earlier about gradual abolition of slavery because it suggests marrying one of protected status which may apply to a slave and thereby freeing them from it.
No. The verse does not discuss such an event. If the Sura describes such an event elsewhere, please illustrate it.
The expression of “such as your right hands possess” has also been in used the Quran with regard to those men and women who took part in aggressive wars against Islam and fell prisoners into the hands of the Muslims.
Not "also", but "only", rather. However, you acknowledge my correctness, for which I thank you.
The context, however, shows that the expression used in the present verse means female prisoners of war. Islam does not allow women taken prisoner in ordinary wars to be taken as wives.
Oh, well then, that's
much better.
For those prisoners there is the teaching which says free them either by favour or mutual exchange. This exceptional injunction becomes operative only when a hostile nation wages a religious war against Islam with a view to extirpating it and compelling Muslim to abandon their religion, at the point of the sword and treats their prisoners as slaves, as was done in the days of the Holy Prophet when the enemies took away Muslim women as prisoners and treated them as slaves. The Islamic injunction was only a retaliatory measure and also served the additional purpose of protecting the morals of captive women.
Another reason being that when female prisoners were taken after war, their own nations and tribes did not accept them back resulting in a lot of homeless women who had nothing and no one to protect them and nowhere to go.
Proof please.
That is why the Muslims were allowed to marry them. Ofcourse the verse says “marry properly” which means that the other rules regarding marriage i.e. consent applied.
Well, it probably didn't apply in the case of Zaynab bint al-Harith, whose family was wiped out by Mohammed and who then poisoned him. I understand she was married off to a muslim after the Battle of Khaybar, yet she seems to have kept enough resentment to knock off Mohammed. Perhaps he didn't notice the extent of her outrage?
The verse one again supports the aforementioned argument of gradually abolishing slavery
How so?
but mostly says that Muslims should restrict try and marry believing women.
...so "believing" women cannot be slaves in islamic society? Only "non-believing" (non-muslim) women can?
The use, also of "believing" is a little offensive. Other people believe other things, and with at least as much reason as muslims.
Its not important to me. I was talking about black slaves. You, im assuming, have a problem with “black”, not me.
I have completely lost what it is you were trying to say here. I'm asking you why the race of the slave matters in these little treatises of slave treatment. Simply put: do you judge all examples of slavery in the West by that of African slaves in the 1700-1800s? Do you know anything of the history of slavery in Western civilization beyond that, or are you going on that example alone? Your point that the slave was black yet rose to a position of importance would seem to imply that you base your conceptions of treatment on the African experience alone.
The copts and the ottoman empire and yadayada have nothing to do with what I said.
Their history would disagree; they were not originally minorities, you see.
Islam presents a threat to Christianity because it takes the rational approach and destroys the faulty doctrines Christianity is based on.
Hehe!
Riiight.
Flying camels and contradictory orders are logical.
That is why it’s a threat to Christianity. That is why the Church had forbidden its priests from engaging in public debates with Ahmadis in india and Pakistan among other things
More like because they didn't want to get lynched by the "believers". Only seems to go the one way, that.
Aye they did make the list. As did Brazil. And others. And enslaving free men and women in Islam is not allowed. I thought id made that much clear...
But enslaving other people is all right - yes, yes, I noticed that.
Can you define a period between when Christianity and Judaism came to Arabia and 1800 when slavery was not a part of Jewish and or Christian civilization?
Your point was rather that slavery was inimical to islam. Yet slavery continued throughout, with Mohammed going so far as to define additional classes of slaves that could be legitimately taken. How can slavery then be so antithetical to islam?
Or can you tell me who else freed as many slaves in the period of the Prophet and the Rashideen as they did? Or any other people in that time who had a whole system in place to gradually abolish this from their society? A system so successful that at the end of the Rashideen all the original slaves had been freed in Arabia.
Good thing they took some more then. By the by, do you have any proof of the above statement?
Well you can research that for yourself. Many Barbary pirates were also former Christians who converted to Islam.
There's that generous "blame the other guy" approach I was waiting for. Ignoring unsupported and specious construct, carrying on.
Sounds to me like a bunch of moneyhungry people who would sell out their values for pieces of gold. Saying that they belonged to and operated because of a certain religion is pretty ridiculous. Pirates don’t have any such values.
They appeared to think they had quite islamic ones. Look them and their statements up.
Haha, thats rich! Pray tell, what is the legal status of a slave?
In short, then, you do
not know the terms I mentioned. If you don't know the legal status of the
numerous classes of the unfree in the medieval period, then you are indeed
not familiar with the legal status of a slave - a concept, I note, that you distain, as least as it applies to the
Western ideal.
Your probably talking about that mythical Umar created by the anti-Islamists who fail to recognize that the Islam state was indeed the target of its enemies and they wanted to destroy it by all means.
Proof please.
But ive always accepted that in the periods after the Rashideen the Muslims lost their way. Most of the Caliphates after that had nothing to do with religion and were more interested in money and worldly matters and did horrible things.
Before, during, and after.
A most curious question. You are
actually unfamiliar with the Golden Rule?
Best,
Geoff