Greetings EmptyForceOfChi,
I have been doing some research into the facts and real historical records of the holy scriptures. I always hear people saying about its severe lack of historical evidence and records so I took a look myself. I found out quite the opposite actualy where I expected to find hardly any real records I found many accounts.
Please be careful to distinguish between history OF the scriptures versus history IN the scriptures.
Here are some interesting quotes and records to Start the thread off.
Dr. Ravi Zacharias, a visiting professor at Oxford University, also comments: "In real terms, the New Testament is easily the best attested ancient writing in terms of the sheer number of documents, the time span between the events and the documents, and the variety of documents available to sustain or contradict it. There is nothing in ancient manuscript evidence to match such textual availability and integrity."6
Let's not confuse confuse two UN-related issues -
* reliability of the text,
* truthfulness of the contents.
Firstly, it is not true that the NT is "the best-attested document in all of antiquity" because there are some documents even older than the NT for which we have the ORIGINAL literally carved in stone (e.g. Behistun inscription, Egyptian tomb inscriptions, the Rosetta Stone, the Moabite Stone) - making them absolutely 100% accurately attested from the original because they ARE the original, and thus much better attested than the NT.
http://visopsys.org/andy/essays/darius-bisitun.html
It's true the NT is fairly well-attested (in terms of quantity) compared to SOME ancient writings - in the sense that we have many old copies (24,000 or more in total). However the vast majority of these copies are from the middle-ages. The number of NT manuscripts from before the dark ages is about a hundred.
http://faculty.bbc.edu/RDecker/documents/nmbr_manuscripts.pdf
But more importantly, this argument implies that because we have so many copies - this proves the contents true. Well, this is obviously not so - the number of copies has nothing to do with the truth of the contents. Consider -
* the Iliad - over 600 manuscripts, more than the NT until after 1000AD - does this mean that the Iliad was more true than the NT until about 1000AD, but from the middle ages on, the NT became MORE TRUE than the Iliad?
* the works of 10thC. Yen-Shou of Hangchow - about 400,000 copies exist, about 4000 times as many copies as NT copies at that time - does this make the work over 4000 times MORE TRUE than the NT?
* the Book of Mormon - there are millions of copies of this work, many dating maybe a FEW YEARS after the original - would this make the Book of Mormon much MORE TRUE than the NT?
* the Lord of the Rings - there are many millions of copies of this work, (including the original manuscript AFAIK), dating from very soon after its writing - does this makes the Lord of the Rings of vastly more true than the NT?
No.
It should be obvious that the NUMBER of copies attesting to a work gives no support to the truth of the contents.
Hmmm..
Reading ahead, I see my work on this has already been cited.
Thanks all
I appreciate your comments.
I'll consider if any further responses are needed.
Iasion