In the Bible it does not say "Kill Gays". It says that men that lie with men should be put to death - presumably after due process. Like any properly designated (in its day) legal document, it assumes the rule of law, not the rule of the mob.
What was said is true, the one foolish line in that little parable is the concept of God saying "If I didn't want you to such-and-such I would have made it impossible."
Why not replace the word ski with pedophilia?
Why not replace the word ski with wife bashing?
Why not replace the word ski with torturer?
Why not replace the word ski with alcoholism?
Why not replace the Word ski with thrill killing?
Lets leave alcoholism out of it for the moment, but the others are all clearly acts which hurt other people. I'm fascinated as to your justification for regarding homosexuality as a sin (because it says so in the bible) by likening it to a series of violent acts
all of which we can agree are among the very vilest of behaviours, but
not one of which is specifically prohibited in the Bible.
I think the vast majority of people around the world prefer to take their morality in an absolute sense from what is clearly harmful to other people, as opposed to acts between consenting adults that
some people
happen to regard as disgusting.
Why do we (in the West) pride ourselves on our democracy? Why do we
have democracy? Because the fundamental understanding of society is that everything changes, environments change, society changes, and that laws have to change to reflect that. The problem with following strictly to the nostrums of a 2,500 year old book (if we talk about Leviticus) is that the great majority of Jews, Christians and Muslims are not a semi-nomadic, agricultural people living in broadly desert country without the benefits or disbenefits of technology, good or bad.
Deuteronomy 25 said:
5 When brothers live together and one of them dies and has no son, the wife of the deceased shall not be married outside the family to a strange man. Her husband's brother shall go in to her and take her to himself as wife and perform the duty of a husband's brother to her.
6 It shall be that the firstborn whom she bears shall assume the name of his dead brother, so that his name will not be blotted out from Israel.
7 But if the man does not desire to take his brother's wife, then his brother's wife shall go up to the gate to the elders and say, 'My husband's brother refuses to establish a name for his brother in Israel; he is not willing to perform the duty of a husband's brother to me.'
8 Then the elders of his city shall summon him and speak to him. And if he persists and says, 'I do not desire to take her,'
9 then his brother's wife shall come to him in the sight of the elders, and pull his sandal off his foot and spit in his face; and she shall declare, 'Thus it is done to the man who does not build up his brother's house.'
A law that was clearly written "post hoc". In other words, one day this sequence of events took place (including the shoe handling) and later it was codified as a law exactly as it happened. Can anybody tell me really if this whole farrago took place
even once after the book of Leviticus was written down? This is one of the areas that if you were to believe that every word of the Bible was the undistilled word of God, you'd say that he was a remarkably foolish and pettyfogging deity.