Yes, a hasty generalization is making a broad statement about a group, such as assuming some group is without sufficient integrity. Hasty generalizations are any assumptions made and extrapolated to a group that cannot be exhaustively demonstrated for the entire group. For example, it is a demonstrable generalization that all darker skinned people have more melanin. It is not demonstrable that all darker skinned people are lacking in some virtue.
My comments do none of that. I make no assumptions, as I'm only discussing people I've encountered. I also do not extrapolate, as I'm only discussing the people I've countered.
Your experience does not change the posting guidelines, regardless of how valid you feel it may be. Hasty generalizations are not about the speed at which the generalization was arrived at, but the expedient of extrapolating broad characterizations.
And your bias against atheists does not change the content of my posts. I simply have not done what you accuse me of doing. I'm sorry you're not getting any satisfaction here. Perhaps if your goals were less reliant on dishonesty, you'd get better results.
Here and in society, both theism and atheism are protected rights of the freedom of thought. It would be a straw man to assume I ever suggested otherwise.
Speaking of strawmen...
How do you control for bias when assessing the intellectual honesty of people you adamantly disagree with?
I don't. It's not a scientific experiment, it's one person making character judgments of another human being.
Sample size does not justify hasty generalization, unless it can be demonstrated a innate feature of a group, at which time in becomes an empirical generalization. All of your experience is anecdotal.
My post does not generalize. I'm specifically talking about people I've encountered. I do not say "All religious people lack integrity," I say, "All religious people
I have encountered on sciforums.com lack integrity.
Whether that statement is true or not is another matter. But being wrong doesn't make it a generalization, much as you wish that were the case.
Yes, their behavior. Can you quote where I supposedly said "gays are wrong" or an equivalent such as "homosexuals are wrong, immoral, etc."? That is rhetorical because I know you cannot. "Homosexuality" (behavior) is not synonymous with "homosexual" (an individual of same-sex orientation). Homosexuality necessarily includes the behavior of same-sex sexual relations, while a homosexual individual may or may not engage in same-sex sexual relations or any sexual relations at all.
Again, the behavior can be differentiated from the individual.
If you judge a behavior as immoral, then you judge the practitioner of that behavior as immoral. That's inescapable. The straw man you're employing here is that I'm accusing you of saying homosexual are
only immoral, and possessing of no other notable characteristic. That's not what I'm accusing you, of that's not even what bigotry is.
Again, do "good" excuses pardon harmful behavior? What about the thirteen year old who was bullied for being a virgin and used that as an excuse for raping a seven year old? Where is the line that makes an excuse good enough to overlook harmful behavior?
I'm not excusing anything, because the behavior in question is not in and of itself harmful, and therefore not worthy of condemnation. It is not homosexual behavior that is the cause of higher AIDS rates, but the fear, recklessness, and ignorance that results from how people like you treat homosexuals. If not for the demonizing, dehumanization, oppression, and abuse of homosexuals, the rates of HIV and AIDS would be near the levels of heterosexuals, or perhaps lower, because there would not be any of the stigma attached to it that causes these behaviors.
But you are right about one thing. Whether orientation is a choice can be largely immaterial when simply considering the harmful behavior that we do know people can exercise choice over.
But, again, you're wrongly criticizing homosexual sex, rather than the behaviors attributed to homosexuals (lack of knowledge of how STDs are transmitted, lack of condom use, more anonymous sex). Presumably, you ignore these details because they make condemning homosexuality impossible.
Society deems rape to be aberrant behavior, largely due to the harm it causes. It is not generally considered bigotry to condemn harmful behavior.
Again with the rape comparison. Ugh.
It is incorrect to blame feminism when a woman kills her abusive husband.
Go read up on meta-ethics.
Whether homosexuality is immoral or not is not a meta-ethical issue. Meta-ethics investigates what "good" and "moral" mean, not whether a certain action is or isn't moral. Yes, it obviously
informs those more specific questions, but it does not apply to them directly.
Your position on homosexuality is a normative one. You think X is bad because Y. And since you're a human being, you certainly concern yourself with
all branches of ethical philosophy, so I have to again ask that you stop trying to hide, grow the hell up and own your opinion. Or, if this is simply a matter of you not actually understanding what you're talking about, to follow your own advice and read up on meta-ethics.
What science "suggests" is quite different from what science can demonstrate.
The "suggestions" are rooted in demonstration. If you're looking for the "gay gene," sorry we haven't found one. And it likely isn't as simple as that, either, as sexuality
seems to also have some relation to gender-specific traits.
But, more to the point, you're evading me again. I asked you how you arrived at "no" to the question of whether homosexuality is an in-born trait. The research suggests that it is, so why do you disregard it all and come down on the other side?
I thought you were just going on about how "you don't need to make an explicit statement to be obvious". If I say the moral equivalence would need explaining, it stands to reason that I am saying that from my own understanding. Still too vague for you to infer from?
Considering that we've had to pry the truth from you on several occasions over the course of this discussion, I thought this might be another one of those times. I still do, until you actually answer the question.
No, I do not think they are morally equivalent. That is why I contrasted non-consensual with consensual.
Finally, a straightforward answer from Syne!
You seem to be the obtuse one here. I did not "lump homosexuals into the same pool as people who willingly and knowingly harm others through rape, pedophilia, or discriminatory behavior". I lump them into the group of people who have a significantly higher rate of high-risk sexual behavior with regard to HIV transmission. Are you saying that is not knowingly harmful?
Knowingly harmful? Not likely. I didn't realize until now that you're also making the assumption that gays who put themselves at risk are aware of that risk and don't care. That simply is not the case.
Why are you so focused on this particular behavior, and not its cause? Why not moral condemnation for the bigotry and abuse that naturally leads to the kind of culture that breeds this risk?
Felson believes that rape is an aggressive form of sexual coercion and the goal of rape is sexual satisfaction rather than power. Most rapists do not have a preference for rape over consensual sex.[11][12][13][14][15][16] In one study, male rapists evaluated with penile plethysmography demonstrated more arousal to forced sex and less discrimination between forced and consensual sex than non-rapist control subjects, though both groups responded more strongly to consensual sex scenarios.[17] -
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Causes_of_sexual_violence#Sexual_gratification
Wow, so you actually found the one guy stupid enough to think rape is about sex. Sorry, one of the two guys stupid enough to think rape is about sex. Anyway, good for you. And good luck finding that scientific consensus.
Do you beat your wife?