Jenyar – thanks for taking the time to post a reply. It’s OK that it was long, I never mind length.
From your posts, I understand that you believe in god from Christianities perspective. I do understand where you are coming from and I do understand your analogies (or at least what you are trying to say). But I find that many Theist’s, language take on this metaphoric feel that doesn’t answer much, pointedly. And in the end seems to either make absolutely no sense or even refute its intended meaning.
Let me give an example:
”God identified with our suffering through Jesus - who suffered most innocently, so that we might have hope of surviving it. God did not plan His creation to make himself suffer, but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.”
1) God identified with our suffering through Jesus.
This implies that god can not identify with our suffering without Jesus. Which is absurd. God is “all powerful”. Identifying with our suffering is the least of what he can do. So the first part of this statement is already wrong. But I would say it is necessary to validate the next part of the statement
.
2) Jesus suffered most innocently
A) Jesus suffered: As we can see from the simplicity of the first statement - unnecessarily. There is no need for Jesus to suffer.
We can quibble over this simply by you stating that God must experience it through Jesus. You can say anything. That’s the wonderful thing about religion - there is no logic to it. Which is inherent and therefore fine for discussion. Regardless, I am trying to make a small attempt at dissection this one statement. So again let me repeat. As god is all powerful (as we both – I think – agree) identifying with human suffering is as simple as me blinking an eye, for god to do without the need for Jesus whatsoever. He created the universe for “god sake”
B) most innocently “most” implies there are less and more states of innocent. I would disagree. It’s either innocent or guilty. Secondly, this is god we’re talking about. Even if it is just one manifestation. Innocent or not innocent is determined by the person judging that individual. I deem Jesus guilty not innocent. Therefore the sentence should continue as … Jesus suffered, as he ought to have, … You can see what I am saying. Again it goes back to making no logical sense. We can just make it up as we go along. To be the one to define what sin is and then not commit sin and then also deem yourself therefore innocent, again seems absurd. I can simply say God created the universe – in any manifestation he is guilty of creating a universe where people suffer. It’s that simple. So its not unreasonably for me to say Jesus is guilty.
3). so that we might have hope of surviving it: First off “so” again implies there is a justification to Jesus’s suffering. Which I do not think is the case (God can do anything. The “it” in this sentence is referring to suffering. So the sentence reads ~ Jesus suffered most innocently so that we might have hope of surviving suffering. At this point I would say the statement now is referring to after death. So again ~ Jesus suffered most innocently so that we might have hope of surviving suffering after we live life (which may itself contain horrible suffering) and are now dead. This implies that Jesus dies horribly so that after we die we can then escape suffering? Lets see here. I live a life of needless suffering so that after I’m dead I don’t need to suffer? You can surely understand why I see this as absurd. God can do anything. If I have a soul he can do with it what he wants after I die. He certainly doesn’t need to kill a manifestation of himself to stop my suffering after I’ve lived a lifetime of it.
4) God did not plan His creation to make himself suffer, but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.” This next sentence is going back to the creation of the world and ultimately the universe.
A) God did not plan “God did not plan” is the most important part. Anything after it does not even need to be read. God knew what was going to happen before creating this universe. Everything is therefore “planned” by god. One even hears of “God’s plan”.
B) His creation to make himself suffer, He most certainly did plan to make himself suffer. He created the universe knowing full and well that, making himself suffer, would be one of the end results. So he did plan it, there’s no two ways about it.
5)but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.” . Where to begin?
A) He does not need to partake in our suffering to redeem us. Again, He is “all powerful” he can redeem humans anytime he feels like it - with or without suffering. He is all powerful - he can do anything. “His original creation” implies that we are not now what he planned on us becoming. Which, as we read above, is not the case. When creating this universe god choose to create it, such that man would end up just as man is. God could have created it differently and in such a way so that man had Free Will (and all the rest) and still lived in paradise. If he could not have, then he is not all powerful. As he is all powerful he must have “wanted” it the way it is. Everything is as god has planned.
B) The end part “His original creation, as He intended it to be” implies that he did not intend for us to be kicked out of paradise and be as we are. This obviously is wrong for reasons already discussed over and over. Which you agreed to in our original discussion earlier last week.
So this is how I see this statement:
”God needlessly identified with our suffering through his Jesus manifestation – and in this form himself suffered. After identifying with our suffering God decided that we may not suffer after we have lived our life and are dead (that is in the afterlife). God did plan His creation in such a way as to make himself suffer (this is for reasons we do not understand), He also partook in some suffering and after which decided he will make a better world for some people after they are dead.”
free will
We will have to agree to disagree on the free will topic. It appears that you accept as true that man has a free will because it appears apparent (and also I would think is a necessary precondition of belief) when a decision is made. To just say Puppetmaster/clockmaker fallacy - - doesn’t make it a fallacy. You have to explain the error in the logic. Regardless, I believe if a god was “all knowing”, not to mention the creator of the universe, then man would not have free will.
Incidentally, I do think people have “free-will” . . . . to some degree.
creating the universe
To you it appears to make sense that God creates a universe where people suffer. As God knew this would be the case even before creating the universe - we can therefore say suffering was part of gods original design/plan. For god to then recreate a paradise the second time seems absurd (to me). One would think that an all powerful god would just create the paradise to begin with – with no option nor possibility of there being any form of suffering at all. An “all powerful god can do this and still accomplish all that it needs/plans to accomplish.
At the very least I would say we agree that some people do live quite luxurious lives and still gain salvation. Well then everyone should live as such. Even if it meant that god had to create the entire world over and over again for each individual guiding him/her along until they reach “salvation” living the luxurious life that some humans do live – well this would be nothing for god to do – and if it can not do that then it isn’t “all powerful”. And if it can and still decides that allowing some children to undergo what some children undergo – well that’s one sick puppy. I mean if you had the ability to prevent a child from coming to harm (and this would in no way inconvenience you) – and you choose not to. Well that person is sick. Not to mention - to design the universe in such a way as to insist that these children are harmed. Well that’s even sicker.
From your posts, I understand that you believe in god from Christianities perspective. I do understand where you are coming from and I do understand your analogies (or at least what you are trying to say). But I find that many Theist’s, language take on this metaphoric feel that doesn’t answer much, pointedly. And in the end seems to either make absolutely no sense or even refute its intended meaning.
Let me give an example:
”God identified with our suffering through Jesus - who suffered most innocently, so that we might have hope of surviving it. God did not plan His creation to make himself suffer, but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.”
1) God identified with our suffering through Jesus.
This implies that god can not identify with our suffering without Jesus. Which is absurd. God is “all powerful”. Identifying with our suffering is the least of what he can do. So the first part of this statement is already wrong. But I would say it is necessary to validate the next part of the statement
.
2) Jesus suffered most innocently
A) Jesus suffered: As we can see from the simplicity of the first statement - unnecessarily. There is no need for Jesus to suffer.
We can quibble over this simply by you stating that God must experience it through Jesus. You can say anything. That’s the wonderful thing about religion - there is no logic to it. Which is inherent and therefore fine for discussion. Regardless, I am trying to make a small attempt at dissection this one statement. So again let me repeat. As god is all powerful (as we both – I think – agree) identifying with human suffering is as simple as me blinking an eye, for god to do without the need for Jesus whatsoever. He created the universe for “god sake”
B) most innocently “most” implies there are less and more states of innocent. I would disagree. It’s either innocent or guilty. Secondly, this is god we’re talking about. Even if it is just one manifestation. Innocent or not innocent is determined by the person judging that individual. I deem Jesus guilty not innocent. Therefore the sentence should continue as … Jesus suffered, as he ought to have, … You can see what I am saying. Again it goes back to making no logical sense. We can just make it up as we go along. To be the one to define what sin is and then not commit sin and then also deem yourself therefore innocent, again seems absurd. I can simply say God created the universe – in any manifestation he is guilty of creating a universe where people suffer. It’s that simple. So its not unreasonably for me to say Jesus is guilty.
3). so that we might have hope of surviving it: First off “so” again implies there is a justification to Jesus’s suffering. Which I do not think is the case (God can do anything. The “it” in this sentence is referring to suffering. So the sentence reads ~ Jesus suffered most innocently so that we might have hope of surviving suffering. At this point I would say the statement now is referring to after death. So again ~ Jesus suffered most innocently so that we might have hope of surviving suffering after we live life (which may itself contain horrible suffering) and are now dead. This implies that Jesus dies horribly so that after we die we can then escape suffering? Lets see here. I live a life of needless suffering so that after I’m dead I don’t need to suffer? You can surely understand why I see this as absurd. God can do anything. If I have a soul he can do with it what he wants after I die. He certainly doesn’t need to kill a manifestation of himself to stop my suffering after I’ve lived a lifetime of it.
4) God did not plan His creation to make himself suffer, but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.” This next sentence is going back to the creation of the world and ultimately the universe.
A) God did not plan “God did not plan” is the most important part. Anything after it does not even need to be read. God knew what was going to happen before creating this universe. Everything is therefore “planned” by god. One even hears of “God’s plan”.
B) His creation to make himself suffer, He most certainly did plan to make himself suffer. He created the universe knowing full and well that, making himself suffer, would be one of the end results. So he did plan it, there’s no two ways about it.
5)but He partook in our suffering to redeem His original creation, as He intended it to be.” . Where to begin?
A) He does not need to partake in our suffering to redeem us. Again, He is “all powerful” he can redeem humans anytime he feels like it - with or without suffering. He is all powerful - he can do anything. “His original creation” implies that we are not now what he planned on us becoming. Which, as we read above, is not the case. When creating this universe god choose to create it, such that man would end up just as man is. God could have created it differently and in such a way so that man had Free Will (and all the rest) and still lived in paradise. If he could not have, then he is not all powerful. As he is all powerful he must have “wanted” it the way it is. Everything is as god has planned.
B) The end part “His original creation, as He intended it to be” implies that he did not intend for us to be kicked out of paradise and be as we are. This obviously is wrong for reasons already discussed over and over. Which you agreed to in our original discussion earlier last week.
So this is how I see this statement:
”God needlessly identified with our suffering through his Jesus manifestation – and in this form himself suffered. After identifying with our suffering God decided that we may not suffer after we have lived our life and are dead (that is in the afterlife). God did plan His creation in such a way as to make himself suffer (this is for reasons we do not understand), He also partook in some suffering and after which decided he will make a better world for some people after they are dead.”
free will
We will have to agree to disagree on the free will topic. It appears that you accept as true that man has a free will because it appears apparent (and also I would think is a necessary precondition of belief) when a decision is made. To just say Puppetmaster/clockmaker fallacy - - doesn’t make it a fallacy. You have to explain the error in the logic. Regardless, I believe if a god was “all knowing”, not to mention the creator of the universe, then man would not have free will.
Incidentally, I do think people have “free-will” . . . . to some degree.
creating the universe
To you it appears to make sense that God creates a universe where people suffer. As God knew this would be the case even before creating the universe - we can therefore say suffering was part of gods original design/plan. For god to then recreate a paradise the second time seems absurd (to me). One would think that an all powerful god would just create the paradise to begin with – with no option nor possibility of there being any form of suffering at all. An “all powerful god can do this and still accomplish all that it needs/plans to accomplish.
At the very least I would say we agree that some people do live quite luxurious lives and still gain salvation. Well then everyone should live as such. Even if it meant that god had to create the entire world over and over again for each individual guiding him/her along until they reach “salvation” living the luxurious life that some humans do live – well this would be nothing for god to do – and if it can not do that then it isn’t “all powerful”. And if it can and still decides that allowing some children to undergo what some children undergo – well that’s one sick puppy. I mean if you had the ability to prevent a child from coming to harm (and this would in no way inconvenience you) – and you choose not to. Well that person is sick. Not to mention - to design the universe in such a way as to insist that these children are harmed. Well that’s even sicker.