I couldn't agree more; however speed is a function of distance/time and what we call dilated time is really unequal unit values between perspectives.
Even if that were a plausible argument, the dilation of time is offset by the contraction of length, and vice versa. So the argument hits a brick wall anyway.
It may seem that I'm splitting hairs (and I'm not),
Pulling out hair comes to mind.
if you examine and understand the properties of time in any empirical role (which I understand very well);
No understanding short of a Jimi Hendrix experience could lead to these conclusions.
in that role it is always a ratio of two physical quantities in a change of position and its magnitude relative to a distance (the quantities are a distance/magnitude).
In the first place it's the derivative of length with respect to time. In the second place, this has nothing to do with relative measurements, which require the Lorentz transformation. A little math goes a long way toward getting the correct results.
The magnitude within a distance is what we define as speed, so when you say time is slowed in any empirical examination it means that the magnitude within the specific distance has decreased (in other words the speed value has decreased).
All relativity says is that the two frames depart from each other in what they formerly agreed was the same duration and length. That difference is the Lorentz factor.
This can be seen and verified in any empirical role and is easiest to see in a clocks functions (a time keeping device or a body that can function as a clock such as the Earth).
Clocks on Earth can demonstrate relativity (the Aluminum clock at NIST slows as it's lowered) although GPS is the quintessential example of the combined rotation and counter-rotation, per Lorentz, due to velocity- and gravity- induced frame differences.
I make no argument against c being measured invariant from every frames perspective, but if you truly analyze and understand the physical quantities that comprise time, therefore any speed too, you'll realize that time cannot be dilated relative to some other perspective without that encompassing all speeds that are a function of time too (time=distance/speed).
You missed the point that distance contracts as time dilates, and vice versa.
In other words using a gamma of 2 a dilated clocks t would be t/2 so where the non dilated clock sees t=d/s the dilated relative clock is t/2=d/(s/2), it must be this way because as described the unit value d remains equal (d=d) between both frames (a meter is still a meter we just measure less of them).
When did you decide to throw out all observations of length dilation/contraction?
What I hope I've said clearly enough is time is comprised of distance/speed, in your dilated example quoted of that, by default the dilated time means the the physical value of the quantity speed (more accurately its magnitude) has lessened to the same unit value of distance.
You have yet to explain how you arrived at the conclusion that length is constant across frames. That is contradicted by gravitational lensing.
In essence Farsight is on the right track but I see in his arguments he is missing some clarity of functions in his arguments.
Thanks for pointing out one of the serious flaws in Farsight's arguments. I think he's been told several thousand times of this fundamental error.