The Problem of Time leads to a Problem of Energy for the Universe
- Thread starter Reiku
- Start date
Energy is action the same as anything else.. time is action.
Past, and future not existing simplifies actions having an opposite reaction. X + -X = 0... Y + -Y = 0... Z + -Z = 0. So you should be happy with the simplest answer that equal opposites = 0. Somehow you are trying to complicate the answer when in fact you are simplifying the answer.
Even though you have removed time, I will complete the explanation.. Time is IN/OUT.
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Well I haven't even mentioned either. It's a different subject. Chaos.
Motor Daddy
Valued Senior Member
It's impossible to violate causality.
Example. You are in NY and your brother is in Florida. You both agree that at exactly 12:00 you will both start traveling towards each other.
Regardless of how fast you travel towards him, you could not get to him before he starts traveling. You could travel 100 trillion times the speed of light and you could not get to his location at or before he starts traveling. In other words, it is impossible for you to travel fast enough to violate causality, regardless of the speed in which you travel.
You say you travel at 10^5,000 times the speed of light to get there? You still get there after 12:00!!!
What makes you so sure?
For instance, it may turn out that particle's violate causality all the time.
That doesn't work if there is a minimal step distance.. which I think there is. I mean 10^5,000 times the speed of light steps over the final location. Which would be like trying to squash an ant on stilts with a 6ft step, and the ant 1 inch in front of you.
Motor Daddy
Valued Senior Member
I am 100% positive because travel takes time! There is no such thing as "instantaneous" travel. Motion occurs over a duration of time.
Does it, so what happens if a particle comes across a wall in space, called a potential? If it wanted to conserve energy, it may decide to take the easiest root called quantum tunnelling. In this tested idea, a particle can disappear from one location and appear at another almost instaneously.
Motor Daddy
Valued Senior Member
Like magic, huh?
You say "almost instantaneously." Do you mean instantaneously, or do you mean a duration of time elapses?
Time means to a distance. You have stated speeds which have no distance, so no time. Lets use the game 'Frogger' as an example. The frog can jump onto logs, so logs are the minimal distance to reach the other side of the pond. Your speeds are beyond the other side of the pond, so it means that you are already at the other side of the pond before you move.
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Motor Daddy
Valued Senior Member
Wrong. A speed is a result of the past distance traveled in the past time elapsed. You start at a specific place and time in the absolute frame, you travel for a duration of time, and you end at a specific place and time in the absolute frame, all the while every object in the universe travels during that time. That is motion. Motion does NOT occur unless a duration of time elapses!
Motion requires minimal step distance. Infinite regression takes you out of our dimension if you go faster than the minimal step distance. It doesn't happen.
Motor Daddy
Valued Senior Member
There is 4 dimensions, x,y,z, and t. That is, volume and time. You have to start at a location, and a duration of time later you are at an end location, which could be the same location if you didn't travel during that duration of time. You seem to imply an object can be at a location, and at the same time (no elapsed time) be at another location. Prove it. Prove that a point of an object can be at 2 separate locations at the same time, ie, the object is at 2,2,3 at 12:00 and it is also at 45,59,29 at 12:00.
There is 4 dimensions, x,y,z, and t. That is, volume and time. You have to start at a location, and a duration of time later you are at an end location, which could be the same location if you didn't travel during that duration of time. You seem to imply an object can be at a location, and at the same time (no elapsed time) be at another location. Prove it. Prove that a point of an object can be at 2 separate locations at the same time, ie, the object is at 2,2,3 at 12:00 and it is also at 45,59,29 at 12:00.
Are you asking if a particle actually can be in two places at one time?