Then you are drawing parallels between the existence of capital punishment in Western society and the implied existence of religious 'correction' which, I add, includes capital punishment. Hence, religiously motivated violence exists.
I did not say that it was. This is your supposition. But you do seem to implicitly understand that it is a motivation; hence, religiously-motivated violence exists.
Religion shares those elements. However, it exists as a separate philosophy from greed. Unless all religion is merely greed?
Like I said:
The content of a stone or axe does not enjoin others to use it for violence, or to commit violence. It imparts no lessons, unless such lessons are inscribed upon it. It has no narrative. Religious books do have a narrative, and those who enjoin others to follow that narrative. If axes had the same, one could say that the existence of such axes motivated violence.
But, according to your postulates above, one is as free to follow greed as one is religion. If your argument is that religion forces no one to act on its violent writings, then the same can be said of the much more nebulous greed.
You are still arguing from the position that religion equals politics.
We've been over that.