...What?
You don't believe me??? Here is an analogy. Let's say an alien spaceship lands on Earth and a few aliens came out who resemble humans, up to 90%. They happen to have 2 legs, but a big furry tail too. One of them wants to compete in the Games. His pretested results are close to the best, so technically he could win. Can he compete? "Testing" him we found no advantage of the big furry tail.
If the alien has no apparent physical advantage, then why not? And while we're at it, this is the second time you've compared handicapped athletes to--or referred to them as--something less than "real" people. I find this to be a troubling sign.
Now unless you let the other aliens run too and see their results, judging by one alien, you simply can not figure out if there is advantage in having a furry tail or not...
Nonsense. You can run a battery on an individual with a particular condition and determine if this person experiences any advantage or disadvantage as compared to other athletes. There would be no need for other examples; if the tail doesn't give
him an advantage, how could it give someone else one?
The same with this guy. If we had a dozen more guys like him and they all make the top 20, (meaning out of the best 20 runners 12 have springs) you bet there is an advantage of having springs for legs...
If a bunch of "Blade Runners" (as he's known) suddenly set a bunch of world records, then you'd certainly have a reason to be suspicious. But Mr. Pistorius wasn't setting any records out there, and didn't even qualify for the final of the event he was participating in.
Speaking of that, Paralympics is the most UNFAIR games ever invented. I understand the reason behind it, but implicating that different type of handicapped people can fairly compete against each other is just ridiculous. Imagine a guy in a wheel chair playing tennis against a blind fellow....
Is that what you think happens at the Paralympics?
I have to wonder, why you do speak on these things without having the first clue as to what you're talking about?
What the hell would possibly make you think blind athletes are playing tennis
at all, let alone at an Olympic level against sighted athletes?
"There has been no study to prove "no advantage". There was, however a study to prove the previous study from German team (not his country) to be inconclusive. The truth of the matter is that he is competing on different terms and that there is no clear answer to the question of advantages."
Incorrect. The study from the German team only found that he had an advantage in straight lines after full acceleration. They did not test him under the conditions of an actual race, which includes getting out of the block, accelerating, and turning. Subsequent tests in Houston found that he used as much oxygen as other runners, and fatigued at a normal rate. There's nothing inconclusive about that.
But even if he did have a slight advantage in some cases (which he apparently does, in straight lines post-acceleration), so what? How is that any different than Usain Bolt's natural advantage in that he only needs to take 42 steps to finish a 100m race while his opponents on average need to take 47? Should Bolt be disqualified for being tall? After all, he has an advantage that other runners cannot account for.
In this video, he comes in very last, and you kind of feel sorry for him, which takes as back to the original problem: If he is bad, letting him compete is just sad, if he is good, who is to say it is not because of the springs?
I sure didn't feel sorry for him, and he certainly didn't feel sorry for himself. He had reached the semi-finals in an Olympic event, so he was "very last" only in an immediate sense. He finished well ahead of many others. And in any case, he took a giant step forward for handicapped athletes being able to compete in able-bodied events. He may have finished last in the race, but he was an overall winner.