I believe I see where you think there's mistake now. I'll add the in-between lines (that change expressions in t' to expressions in t'') so you can see how it works.
You are not serious are you? What is $$-ut'-(-ut')$$? This is getting ridiculous.
I believe I see where you think there's mistake now. I'll add the in-between lines (that change expressions in t' to expressions in t'') so you can see how it works.
No, it wouldn't, please stop hacking at the problem. There are enough hacks in the thread already. See what Neddy Bate tried, see what Pete is trying.
In order to improve my naive understandings, I need more than just "no". I need the "why" too. Please can I have the why? Do you mean we can't simplify by placing it all in a very weak, even vanishingly small GR field? Can't we ignore a very very weak GR field this way and go on with Pete's exercise using just SR? Can you say why not?
But you agree that in either formalism the floor of the train, like the rod, will always appear crooked to the platform observer? If yes then the train floor and the platform surface can never appear level parallel to the platform observer unless you combine frames like I think you did there? I am still confused.
Edit/ It is also my naive understanding that in SR problems any reasonably weak Gravitational Field can be sliced up into small distances and any "GR curvature" may be effectively ignored (even if initial motion of the rod is due to that field, it need not be a strong acceleration but a weak one)? Wouldn't the same "simplification" eliminating GR from consideration apply to each subsequent small slice of distances to each subsequent position traced along the path line to the floor (or platform or whatever)? I can't see why we can't do this problem like Pete wants and see what we get so I can improve my naive understandings from it.
Pete said:In $$S''$$:
$$\begin{align}
A'' &= \left(x_A''(t''), \ y_A''(t'') \right)\\
&= \left(\frac{x_A'}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ -ut' \right) \\
&= \left(-Vt'', \ -u\gamma'(t'' + \frac{Vx_A''}{c^2}) \right ) \\
&= \left(-Vt'', \ \frac{-ut''}{\gamma'} \right)
\end{align}$$
$$\begin{align}
B'' &= \left(x_B''(t''), \ y_B''(t'') \right) \\
&= \left(\frac{x_B'}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ -ut' \right) \\
&= \left(\frac{1}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ -u\gamma'(t'' + \frac{Vx_B''}{c^2}) \right) \\
&= \left(\frac{1}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ \frac{-ut''}{\gamma'} + \frac{uV\gamma'}{\gamma c^2} \right)
\end{align}$$
The angle of the rod with the x-axis at time t'' is:
$$\begin{align}
\tan(\theta'') &= \frac{y_B''(t'') - y_A''(t'')}{x_B''(t'')-x_A''(t'')} \\
&= \frac{uV\gamma' / \gamma c^2}{1 / \gamma'} \\
&= \frac{uV\gamma'^2}{\gamma c^2}
\end{align}$$
Why always hack at problems instead of solving them? Ponder on this.
I see you snipped the 'missing' lines from your post.
In $$S''$$, t' at $$A$$ is not the same as t' at $$B$$. This is the result of the Lorentz transform.
What is "weak"? How weak is "weak"? How do you solve the problem when it isn't 'weak"? Why always hack at problems instead of solving them? Ponder on this.
As "weak" a curvature as can be effectively ignored.
Why not wait to solve the "non weak" formalism after we do the weak case? Is there something stopping us from doing the weak case first and then continuing with the significant GR case afterwards?
Basically, you're right. I don't know enough about GR to mathematically express the conditions under which it's equivalent to SR, but qualitatively, it's in the small gravity/acceleration limit. Like you implied in parenthesis, if gravity is the source of the initial motion of the rod, but its effect is weak compared to whatever large velocity is making you use relativity in the first place, special relativity is a good approximation. Tach's objections are getting more and more obstructionist, so I'd suggest you just follow Pete's arguments if you want to improve your understanding. In fact, if you really want to hone your understanding of relativity, go through his post 182 and try to derive it for yourself. It's not too advanced an exercise, and you might even be able to tell Pete where his mistakes are (if any), since Tach is refusing to point them out unless Pete starts a new thread.
I did, you just seem to refuse to accept the answer. As an aside, you and Pete should jointly open a separate thread dealing with the dumbed down scenario that you seem so intent on analyzing. I would like to keep this thread on the OP. Deal?
You haven't answered any of the questions.
Irrelevant. We want the angle of the rod in $$S''$$ at fixed $$t''$$, not $$t'$$.No, your stuff is as ridiculous as before, let me ask you again, what is $$-ut'-(-ut')$$.
Irrelevant.Even better, what is $$y"_A(t")-y"_A(t")$$?
I have not the level of understanding to answer questions at this stage. I am here to improve on my naive understandings. That is why I asked you the "why" of it when I outlined ny confusion and my naive understandings around the GR objection. Why not do it with weak GR field first and then get on to the GR included solution?
Irrelevant is what it is.
Even more irrelevant.
What is $$y"_B(t")-y"_A(t")$$?
Pete said:In $$S''$$:
$$\begin{align}
A'' &= \left(x_A''(t''), \ y_A''(t'') \right)\\
&= \left(\frac{x_A'}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ -ut' \right)
\end{align}$$
$$\begin{align}
B'' &= \left(x_B''(t''), \ y_A''(t'') \right) \\
&= \left(\frac{x_B'}{\gamma'} - Vt'', \ -ut' \right) \\
\end{align}$$
Because the "weak" field is still GR, not SR. That's why.
And...?
Sorry, Tach, but I just think you're mistaken.Not irrelevant at all , look at what you wrote. Do I need to keep rubbing your nose in your errors?
Going around and around. The whole reason for using the weak insignificant GR field is so that we can do it in effectively SR. You can get to the GR inclusive case after can't you?