Actually telescopes support the "supposition" whatever supposition you are referring to.
"'tis frustrating isn't it?"
"'tis frustrating isn't it?"
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What issue do you think it is? [ given the title of this thread ]
I think QQ's point, and correct me if I'm wrong, is that the apparent visually smooth continuity of a star 200MM LY away from us as we move around, observing it from the Earth, implies a number of photons being emitted per second that vastly exceeds what we calculate it to be locally at the star. Of course it's almost 3AM and I'm too tired to do the math...time for bed
Well QQ, I don't know if your objection has merit or not although I have heard it before. One thing I think you are neglecting is that just because we can ascribe dimensions to the wavelength of a photon that does not mean that 2 photons cannot be arbitrarily "close together". Bosons such as photons differ from fermions in this way. That being said, if I get bored maybe I'll run the numbers later to see if things roughly jibe.
The problem as I see it is that if we subscribe to a photon as having dimensions [ width, length etc] we can note that a finite number of photons must be emmitted from a star in every wave at t=0.
This means that as the wave expands the distance between these photons along the circumference of the wave gets larger so that by the time the wave has propagated 200 million Lys a photon particle would actually be damn hard to find along the wave front as the distance of separation would be huge.
Of course experience will tell us that no matter where we place our receptor if the light is upon it a theoretical photon particle must be present, and this contradicts the use of finite dimensions for our photon particle, unless of course you want to allow it to change it's dimensions as per distance from source. [ as you will find that any where along the wave front light will be present on our receptor]
And if the particle has NO dimension and is in fact zero dimensional then for all intents and purposes it could be considered as an imaginary artifact of a wave which of course the double slit experiment refutes.
So which is it particle or wave? or dare I suggest the outrageous and put forward that it could be neither!