Nope: it's all internal.
Sort of the memory of red rather than seeing red.
Exactement comme ca.
Nope: it's all internal.
Sort of the memory of red rather than seeing red.
but Glaucon as you no doubt agree this is based on insuffficient knowledge of how the mind works.This old empirical nugget would require an entire different thread of it's own.
For our concerns here, suffice it to say that you've just described the contradiction itself: "...no external sensory input...". Ergo, when dreaming, there can be no 'sensing', and thereby, no sensing experience.
but Glaucon as you no doubt agree this is based on insuffficient knowledge of how the mind works.
...
Dreams from my experience are indeed generated by external stimulus, then interpreted by the imagination, added with subconscious requirements and thrown up on your internal visonary capacity in the form of a florid halucination type experience.
So IMO dreams certainly do have external stimulous similar to all thought I guess.
However the arguement as to whether or not they come close to being "objective" is highly debatable IMO [ given current understanding of mental isolation of individuals.
agreed with the emphasis on the word "reasonably". Even if you choose to go the Descartes way.....haYou are correct; I do indeed agree with you on this.
I agree with this as well, with one (extremely important) caveat: the external stimulus in question is not active at the time of dreaming; it is in fact a post-experience stimulus.
Of one sort of another originally, yes. But similarly, one's recollection of say, eating ice-cream, is intrinsically different from that very experience. So, to my way of thinking, a dream-'experience', is no experience at all.
Agreed. And so, regardless of how we choose to classify a dream-experience, we cannot reasonably maintain that this can support an objective ontology. That is, unless you choose to go the Rationalist way.. a la Descartes..
No it's not. You have no proof. You cannot just say somebody's argument is contradictory without anything to back up such hyperpathetical claims.I made no comment concerning difference.
As you wrote it, your argument is contradictory.
No it's not. You have no proof. You cannot just say somebody's argument is contradictory without anything to back up such hyperpathetical claims.
Logic is assumed. There is no such thing as anybody using anything to support the notion of objective reality outside of anything. I am assuming the parameters of logic. Thus, anything outside of the parameters being discussed has no relevance to my statement. Does objective reality exist? Assuming logic, and operating specifically within the parameters of logic, it does. Logic is a faith based method of reasoning.
Wrong. There is no necessary method of perceiving true information. The senses perceive information period. If we perceive something that isn't there, then our perceptions are incorrect. If we perceive something that is there, then our perceptions are correct. In either case, we are perceiving something to be there.Thus we never experience an objective reality.
Unless you perceive what is there as something it's not.If we perceive something that is there, then our perceptions are correct.
Wrong. There is no necessary method of perceiving true information. The senses perceive information period. If we perceive something that isn't there, then our perceptions are incorrect. If we perceive something that is there, then our perceptions are correct. In either case, we are perceiving something to be there.
Language interferes with thought, and makes relative concepts appear to be absolute. Such as the quality of being objective. You can only strive to be as objective as possible in your judgements.
I just went over this. Language distortion of relative qualities as absolutes.Your ability to reason must be a bit limited. I take it that you consider your own perceptions to be objective?
Yes. Wow. Did you figure all that out by yourself?Unless you perceive what is there as something it's not.