MacM:
I'll start by answering your questions.
I assume you mean after the acceleration period, once the final speed is reached. Answer: It depends on which frame you're observing the tick rate in. The Lorentz factor for this speed is 1.666.
Correct and that means "A" is ticking slower than "B". When "A" ticks off 6 seconds "B" has ticked off 10 seconds.
This is NOT a frame dependant function it is the physical reality in all frames.
In A's frame, A's clock runs at the normal rate
Here is where you are lost. Yes in "A's" frame his proper time seems normal but his proper time has a different physical tick rate than "B's" proper tick rate. ta does not equal tb just because the observer can't tell the difference in his proper tick rate.
and B's runs slower by a factor of 1.666.
Not the physical reality. That is the "Illusion of Motion". "B's" tick rate has not changed because "A" now has motion. THAT is the physical reality.
In B's frame, A's clock runs slower than B's by a factor of 1.666 and B's clock runs at the normal rate.
Correct. In "B's" frame the "Illusion of Motion" IS the physical reality.
By the way, this scenario is indistinguishable from one in which A and B are originally at rest and B accelerates away, leaving A at rest, except that the direction of motion of B would be the opposite to your original scenario.
With one major difference. It would only be "B" that is actually dilated rather tha "A" which would have been physically dialted in the first case.
Permanently physically dilated means the clock that actually displays less accumulated time when directly compared without any "Illusion of Motion" percepton.
Put more directly a dilated condition supported by hard emperical data.
That is, once the acceleration is over, there's no experiment you can do to show that the acceleration ever happened.
Sure there is. You install digital transmitters in "A" and "B" clocks to send out data about their respective accumulated times. You can then be in any frame "A", "B" , "C", etc and you monitor which clock is assumulating time faster or slower.
The slower ticking clock (accumulating time slower) will be the one with the greatest acceleration history and hence has the largest change in velocity universally.
Examining current clock rates won't tell you anything about the acceleration history of A or B. Do you agree?
Absolutely not.
Now, comments on your reply:
You're not talking about special relativity here, are you?
Because you DO know that special relativity ONLY considers relative velocities. There are no absolute velocities in the theory of relativity.
You can't simply slip and slide away from the issue.
When you apply your "Who switched frames" criteria you are no longer merely considering relative velocity between frames. You are considering "Who has accelerated and changed velocity".
You are only correct in saying SR claims to only consider relative velocity. The fact is relative velocity is not used. As pointed out emperical data does not support the arguement that time dilation is an observer driven fuction that applies to two frames if both have accelerated but only applies to an accelerated frame vs an initial inertial rest reference frame.
It is only valid between clock when one clock remains fixed at the initial inertial rest reference - which is basically the case for all your accumulated emperical data.
Every thingelse is hypothetical speculation based on arbitrary mathematics
So, what theory are you thinking of, then?
Read above. Your SR doesn't function by m,ere relative velocity no matter how hard you try to conceal the truth to the contrary.
Do you apply "Who switched frames to you data when computing time dilation?" Yes or No.
Do you have any emperical data to support the arguement that from the "Switched Frame" view point the resting clock is physically dilated or is that simply mathematical conjecture based on assumptions about the physics of relativity?
Ah, sorry. I was obviously letting true physics slip into my thinking, instead of going with what your fantasy physics says. My mistake.
Lets keep this honest. You have absolutely no emperical data upon which to assert your claims are based on "True Physics" and you have proved no rebuttal to justify claiming my corrections as being "Fantasy Physics". Nice try but poetry may sound nice but it doesn't necessarily describe real life.
Ok. We're getting to the crux of this. Your statement in bold is very clear. Let me give you one more scenario, just so I understand your position.
You observe three clocks: A, B and C. At the time you observe them, you happen to be at rest relative to clock C. Note: I am not telling you that you are on Earth. For example, Clock C may be the clock you're carrying along with you in a spaceship travelling at unspecified speed v relative to Earth, for example.
So, you're at rest relative to C. From your reference frame, you measure the speeds of clocks A and B, which happen to be moving relative to C (you). You observe that clock A is travelling at 0.6c away from you. You observe that clock B is travelling at 0.6c away from you, but in the opposite direction to clock A. You have no information about how the three clocks might have accelerated (or not) before your observations.
Questions:
* Is it possible for you (C) to measure the tick rates of clocks A and B from your frame C?
If you had installed digital transmitters on those clocks yes. You could begin to monitor at what rate each clock was accumulating time.
* If so, what are the tick rates of clocks A and B?
Unknown until actually tested. That has been my point you want to assert that they are gong to tick a 80% of "C" but they may not have accelerated from "C's" frame as a rest frame.
Your mathematics are shear speculation and that is all. Every test ever done and all data is based on known and fixed frames of rest and relative motion such as a particle accelerator.
* Are A and B synchronised? i.e. do they tick at the same rate?
Not known until actually tested.
* If you can, please specify how you might measure the tick rates of clocks A and B (assuming that such a thing is possible at all).
Did above.
I get what you're saying. You're saying that my speedometer, which does just such a computation of my car's speed, will NOT read 50 mph if your radar gun reads 50 mph. The difference might be very small, but it would be a real difference, according to you. Right?
Can you tell me what maths I'd have to build into my speedometer so that it would always read the same speed as your radar gun's measurement of the car's speed?
Or, are you saying that if I have my own radar gun in my car and I point it at you it will read your speed as something other than 50 mph?
Since radar is based on timing signals out and back using an onboard clock the onboard traveling car radar will record the parked car as moving away faster than 50 Mph.
So, speedometers are impossible?
Hardly. However what they indicate may not be totally correct. Just as my radar in the traveling car saw you speeding whenn you infact were parked.
Do you think I should be able to drag you into court for speeding since you had a relative velocity to me in excess of the speed limit even though you were parked?
So, you stand still and your radar gun measures my speed at 50 Mph west. Let's assume, like in your example, that you are moving east at 1000 mph and my car is driving east at 950 mph.
Questions:
* Have I got it right that your radar gun would measure my speed at 50 mph west?
The result from the radar gun is a function of acculated time on the onboard clock attached to the radar. Such that what it computes is a function of it's physical tick rate.
That is speculation until tested. The only problem is that for most everyday motion time dilation plays no role and we do not see nor can measure the affect so we go along content that relative velocity truely measures symmetrical.
* What would the speedometer on my car say in this case?
See above.
* What would the radar gun in my car read when I point it at you?
See above.
* Is there any way I could tell from the measurements (radar guns and speedmeter) our actual speeds (1000 and 950 mph)? Bear in mind that the road may also be moving relative to something like the Sun.
See above.
* Actually, just to be clear, what are these 1000 and 950 mph speeds relative to? The road? A fixed point at the centre of the Earth? The Sun? Or what?=
Center of the earth.
I'm not entirely sure what you're saying here.
Possibly because I missed a typo. It should have read + or - not =/-. But in your SR mathematics you apply a numerical sign to tell the mathe to increase or decrease clock tick rate. That is how you get a clock that was accelerted away and become dilated to then return to normal tick rate when returned to its original frame.
This addresses my next question to you which was "I forgot to tell you that "A" & "B" had previously launched in a co-moving direction from "C" and that they then would be ticking at gamma = 1.66666n or 0.6 as fast as "C".
In the example I gave you we agree "A" is ticking slower than "B" as it leaves "B" but it is also ticking slower than "C" bu it must now also be starting to tick faster so as to return to "C's" original tick rate.
How do you justify a clock physically starting to tick slower and faster at the same time?
My math has the clock speeding up or slowing down depending on the reference frame it is observed from.
Correct. I understand that is your theory but that makes physical tick rate a function of observer perception and observers for "A" and "B" where they have relative velocity are not correct in their assumption that each is accumulating time slower than each other when in fact they have had equal acceleration from some common rest frame.
As pointed out when they pass "C" they are notr dilated relative to each other regardless of their hving relative velocity of not. Their tick rate is not a function of THEIR relative velocity but of thier velocity to the common inertial rest frame.
Another example: I am driving along the road at 50 mph, east. You are driving your car next to mine, also at 50 mph east. Now, you slam on the brakes. What does your car do, in my reference frame? Answer: You started at rest in my reference frame, and when you slammed on the brakes you accelerated with increasing speed to the west. Agree?
That would be true. Braking and accelerting backwards is the same thing.
Question: did you speed up or slow down when you hit the brakes? Answer: it depends on the reference frame we're looking at you from. From my car's frame, you sped up. From the point of view of a bystander on the road side, you slowed down.
Do you agree?
Correct.
How does it manage to do that? Surely if the maths is all wrong, it can't possibly work to even predict perceptions correctly. Is it just lucky?
I don't follow your conclusions here at all. The problem is you like to mix everyday velocities with relavistic predictions. Most all velocities we deal with on a daily basis are not affected by relativity and relative velocity IS virtually symmetrical in our experiences.
Why have we never observed any massive object moving faster than light, then?
Data suggests we have but only when generally orthogonal. That is remote objects have been timed at v>c but not in the line of sight. In the line of sight the physical dimensions of mass (but not space) do undergo Lorentz Contraction and therfore cease to exist physically to us.
Why have we never seen any object disappear from our universe into a different energy level universe, or any object suddenly appear in our universe from the other universe?
We may have but it hasn't been recognized for what it is worth. Massive objects near the edge of the observable universe are approaching v = c but you see nothing beyond that. That does not mean massive objects have not exceeded v = c and vanished.
Virtual particles appear and disappear all the time. Universe appear to form as expanding bubbles it would be logical that they push each other and do not generally mix. That is an expanding wave of energy forming space pushes agaisnt other expanding waves of other universes forcing them to seperate not mix mass content.
I most certainly do.
I thought you would have learned after all these years that the entire theory of special relativity (for a start) is derived from only TWO postulates. From these two simple postulates, we get time dilation, velocity addition, "reciprocity", length contraction, relativity of simultaneity, and all the other good stuff you can't bring yourself to believe.
WEBSTER:
"Postulate" - 2) to assume
without proof to be true or real, or necessary esp. as a basis for arguement.
Hmmmm. Hardly an over powering arguement.
What I have been proposing is that the invariance of light postulate is based on our ignorance and that what we think we see (measure) is actually based on an illusion caused by physics we yet do not understand and that in lieu of being invariant photons we are seeing different photons being generated.
What we may be seeing that we call traveling photons may be an energy pulse along a carrier which is moivng at multiple velocities FTL such that you are actually seeing an energy based function at v = c to the observer.
Further that this carrier may extend toward infinity and is the connection driving particle entanglement.
What is certainly NOT true is that Einstein could just add ad hoc mathematics to make things the way he wanted them. The velocity addition formula of special relativity is not an "extra" add-on to the theory. It is a direct and simply-derived consequence of the same two postulates. There's no choice in the maths once the two postulates have been specified. And they are exceedingly simple.
And potentially if not likely flawed.
And in all these years you have never been able to bring yourself to directly say that either of the postulates of special relativity is flawed.
Did you go deaf. Every time this issue has been raised for years I have given the same asnwer as above.
Which means, of course, that all your attacks on the mathematics and your comments about "reality vs. perception" are useless, because if the postulates are right then the maths must be right. If it wasn't, somebody would have shown the errors some time in the last 100 years.
Many have tried and they get the same circle jerk made here.
Similarly, the v=c speed limit is not something ADDED to the theory of relativity. It is a derived consequence of those same two postulates.
Covered above.
I'm extremely disappointed that you do not know these things.
False unsupported innuendo.
In short, what all this means is that to attack special relativity, you need to attack at least one of the two postulates - with reasons, of course. But you're not brave enough to do that, are you?
Have many time but you choose to ignore the evidence and possibilities.
So what you're saying is that the theory you wish to replace relativity with doesn't apply to our universe, but only to a different universe at a "higher level" - an unknown fantasyland MacM universe that we have no way of detecting.
Correct?
It applies to all potential universes.