Fraggle Rocker
Staff member
The Chinese Buddhist missionaries brought Chinese culture and technology, wholesale, to Japan (and also to Korea). This elevated the nation from the Bronze Age to the Iron Age almost literally overnight, and surpassed the capabilities of their language to deal with the myriad new concepts. So the scholars, rulers and other people in power learned Chinese of necessity. For centuries, all educated Japanese people were fluent in Chinese, just as all educated Europeans were fluent in Latin in the Middle Ages. Eventually their national pride kicked in and they wanted to develop a writing system for Japanese. Lacking the phonetic alphabet that aided the transcription of the European languages (or the Arabic abjad that aided the people of the Middle East, or Sanskrit's phonetic Devanagari script that many of the Indian languages use), they struggled with adapting Chinese characters to Japanese. This is a terrible fit because the two languages could hardly be more different in phonetics, grammar and syntax. For a while they simply wrote in Chinese, but eventually they devised conventions for representing a Japanese word by the character for the more-or-less equivalent Chinese word. This was not terribly successful for two reasons:The spoken language have almost no relation, but the written language is very close, originated from China.
- Japanese had assimilated thousands of Chinese words (just as English has with Latin) and they already used those characters for the original Chinese words.
- Japanese has inflections, which Chinese does not (not even singular-plural or present-past-future), and there was no way to record them.
"Fool" would be too harsh a word. So would "gullible," since you admit the weakness of the evidence. Perhaps "romantic" would serve the purpose without being an insult.In fact, outside of the scriptures, there is no evidence in any of the Biblical patriarchs (from Noah to Abraham to Isaac to Jacob). A similar argument can be made for Prophets who came after the patriarchs (Moses, Jesus, and to a much lesser degree, Muhammad). I personally think all of these figures existed. Would you consider me a fool for believing so?
This is a place of science and scholarship--or at least we Moderators try to keep it that way. We abide by the Rule of Laplace: Extraordinary assertions must be supported by extraordinary evidence before anyone is obliged to treat them with respect. To say that you know the names of an entire succession of people who lived, at best, in a time when recordkeeping was cursory, or, at worst, in a time whose place in our space-time continuum has not been established (Noah's Ark? A flood that raised sea level to the top of Mt. Ararat when we know that there is nowhere near that much water on this entire planet?), is certainly a textbook example of an "extraordinary assertion."
And you admit that the only supporting evidence you have is a so-called "holy" book, which even on its own timeline had to have been passed down orally for generations before the actual book took form. This is hardly extraordinary evidence!
So you'll have to live with the fact that we have no obligation to treat your assertion with respect. Or, as I said above, to regard you other than as a romantic.
On a more sober note, to admit that you regard the Tanakh as a history book, rather than a collection of metaphors, casts aspersions on the quality of your scholarship. This will make many of us skeptical of all of your future assertions.