I had an arguement today with some Jehovah's Witnesses.
They stated to me that Jesus Christ was Michael the Archangel.
I protested. I told them they were talking nonesense. Then they read me out a passage from revelation saying the The Lamb would descend from Heaven with an Archangels Voice.
I told them that revelation was a riddle. That only [some] of it was literal, and the rest cryptic.
I told them that it could mean that Jesus would be followed by Archangels singing His praise... In fact, it could have meant a lot of things.
They gave some other evidence, which was lame.
I said its impossible. I gave them a situation in the Bible.
When John, (in the end of revelation) - 22 i think, or maybe just before it, goes to bow down to the angel (probably an archangel)... but the angel tells him that he should not, because he was nothing more than a servant of God too.
Now if its true, then why does the Bible clearly state that all knees will bow to Jesus>? Isaiah somewhere
If this was the case, then Jesus to would have been nothing more than another servant of God, and would have not been given that type of authority.
Does anyone agree?
Then i proposed a second arguement to counter them. I gave them John1:1 to consider, only to find again that John1:1 says, ''In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was [a] god,'' with a small letter g.
In King James, indeed most of the Bibles in the world have ''Was God.''
Is their religion blasphemous?