Vociferous
Valued Senior Member
Sarkus:
Even though you claim to have kept up with the thread, you seem to have missed this.
Eternalism - the proposition that past and future are as equally real as the present. In General Relativity time is a dimension, as real as any dimension of space, where "there/then" is just as real as "here/now" and our perception of the "flow" of time is more of an illusion or artifact of our senses.
"Physics, particularly 20th century physics, does have one lesson to impart to the free will debate; a lesson about the relationship between time and determinism. Recall that we noticed that the fundamental theories we are familiar with, if they are deterministic at all, are time-symmetrically deterministic. That is, earlier states of the world can be seen as fixing all later states; but equally, later states can be seen as fixing all earlier states. We tend to focus only on the former relationship, but we are not led to do so by the theories themselves." - https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/determinism-causal/#DetHumActPresentism - the proposition that the present is all that is real and that past and future do not exist. If the past is not real, there is only a present record and subjective seeming of a past consistent with the present. In that case, antecedent would simply be that choice is among the factors that "logically precedes" effect.
Growing block - the proposition that the past and present are real and the future is not. If past inexorably leads to the present which inexorably leads to the future, there would be no reason to believe the future, alone, did not exist, unless it was not "set" until a contribution from the present.
It more seems you gave up on him because you had, and still have, no response to his criticism of the theories of time being irrelevant. Certainly no question-begging, at least not on his part. Unless you think that conclusions can only be reached via that? Perhaps you can set out what you think he is presuming, what he is concluding, and thus his question-begging?Sarkus:
Yeah, that's why I gave up on Baldeee. Question begging often dismisses arguments out of hand. Meh.
Nah, I'm bored of people unwilling to engage with any argument they just don't like. And I don't really care enough to be pulling teeth here.
I’m not even sure you actually know what question begging is, to be honest.Yeah, that's why I gave up on Baldeee. Question begging often dismisses arguments out of hand. Meh.
Says the person literally unwilling to engage with an argument (that the theory of time is irrelevant to the issue at hand) he just doesn’t like.Nah, I'm bored of people unwilling to engage with any argument they just don't like.
Unfortunately you continue to misundersand what it means for something to be deterministic. You miss where it requires the effect to be wholly determined by the cause.
As physical law incorporates, and the hammer and nail illustration shows, all causes and effects are probabilistic outcomes at some level.Since we are unlikely to know the initial state of a complex chaotic system, we can at best estimate the outcome probabilistically -
You make a case for discarding the assumption that the universe is deterministic, in order to preserve a naive take on slipshod definitions - but we agreed to assume it was.To summarise: if cause X inherently leads to A 50% of the time, and to B the other 50% of the time, then you are not looking at a deterministic system.
As you point out above, many subsets or parts of the universe are not deterministically time-reversible at the scale in which they occur (we can, for example, play Conway's Life; we can also let the air out of a tire, shovel snow, etc.).In time-reversible systems, that is, in systems that are deterministic in both normal and a reversed flow of time, later states do fix earlier states. Pretty much by definition.
How is it irrelevant when for something to be considered natural in a deterministic universe, the universe in question must be deterministic. And thus understanding what determinism entails is surely at the very heart of understanding whether something is, or is not, natural. All you are wanting to do is start with the assumption that free will exists, and as such you are simply begging the question being asked.Most significanlty: 1) That is irrelevant to a discussion of natural freedom of will.
I.e. once you combine the premise of what free will is, with the premise of the deterministic universe, you conclude that free will does not exist. I get it. Of course, you could define free will as X, and once you reach the conclusion that X also does not exist, you will exclude X from being an acceptable definition, because since it doesn't exist then it must be supernatural. This has been explained to you many times now.The only relevance of determinism to freedom of will is in its exclusion of supernatural events - some people require that the will be supernatural to be free (that it possess the ability to do other than it physically must, produce different outcomes from inputs defined to be identical, etc). This has been explained to you many times now.
No, in a deterministic universe proximate causes do not include probability at all. Probability only comes into consideration when you are unaware of all the facts, all the details, when you do not have complete knowledge of the cause or the system at play. If you had complete knowledge, there is no probability, at any level.2) But even as a tangential and irrelevant repetition, it is wrong. I'm missing nothing of the kind.
I'm simply noting that normally there is no "the" cause, and often the proximate causes include probabilities.
I am absolutely not. Predictability is a practical matter, based on knowledge of the system. Randomness is, if true, an inherent aspect of the nature of the universe - which would make it indeterministic and thus not part of this consideration - or simply an appearance due to not having the full knowledge of the system.And further, that you are confusing predictability with randomness...
Appeal to complexity and logical levels again, without ever actually, you know, making an argument in support of them being relevant. All you seem to be doing here making a case here for "free will" to be nothing but an appearance, an illusion, of what is actually going on. But since you haven't actually made a case for anything at all, who can really be sure....while overlooking the key factors of logical levels, scale, and time (what is random at one scale can rigidly determine the outcome at another, similarly the relationship between events separated in time - and that is a central fact behind the usefulness of cause/effect analysis in the first place, which otherwise would be of very limited benefit.
Sure, if you only ever want to consider the appearance of what is going on, the incomplete system, without considering what is actually going on. Sure, we can all define free will as the "appearance of..." based on what our consciousness is interpreting things as. Sure, we can all dismiss the philosophical for the naive, as you are doing each and every time you make an example out of things that are based on our subjective interpretation of woefully incomplete information of the system, let alone the state of it.Cause and effect are derivative, not fundamental, constituents of the universe - valuable and effective shortcuts that sacrifice unnecessary and expensive comprehension for efficiency, but only to the extent that they do not mislead or confuse.
Example: A hammer is swung at a nail set into a board (skilled framer: one blow to set, one to drive). Possible outcomes:
1) The nail merges with the hammer, its atoms incorporating themselves into the metal of the hammer head. The nail disappears into the hammer's head.
2) The atoms of the board align themselves perfectly with the atoms in the nail tip, thereby resisting the impact and converting the force of the blow entirely into heat - depending on the distribution of the resulting waves of force, the nail may melt a little, the board may catch fire, etc.
3) The spins of the electrons of either the hammer head or the nail adopt parallel orientation for a split second as the hammer nears the nail head - the resultant magnetic force extracts the nail from the board and slams it into the hammer head, which melts.
- and so forth.
None of these are worth considering, in normal circumstances. The effect is a nail driven into the board, the proximate cause of this effect was a blow from a hammer, no problem. That's what cause/effect thinking is for - pruning the possibility tree.
Appearance of probability only, due to our lack of knowledge of the system.As physical law incorporates, and the hammer and nail illustration shows, all causes and effects are probabilistic outcomes at some level.
Feel free to support this, because given that we can set up chaotic systems of our own, with arbitrary and certain starting conditions, you're talking nonsense. The fact that we can model systems that are chaotic is proof that you are simply wrong.Meanwhile: According to the best physical theory it is impossible to know "the initial state" of even a simple chaotic system except as a probability, in theory or in practice.
Please feel free to support this nonsense.Not "unlikely": impossible. Not just in practice, but also in theory.
The probabilistic outcome is therefore "the effect", the probability being "the cause" (or more carefully stated, among the causal factors).
I'm doing nothing of the sort! I have steadfastly stuck to the premise that the universe is deterministic in this discussion, whereas you are doing everything in your power to bring in inherent indeterminism, simply because you fail to grasp what determinism is, and what it entails. Despite every effort to enlighten you. First you try to claim that determinism is irrelevant to this discussion, and now this??? Seriously, until you can actually be bothered to comprehend what determinism entails, there is little point in continuing with you.You make a case for discarding the assumption that the universe is deterministic, in order to preserve a naive take on slipshod definitions - but we agreed to assume it was.
Noone has ever disputed the existence of such things. The only issue is whether they are free or not. And you have yet to show how they can be considered as such, other than by way of how they appear (i.e. the illusion of being free) due to lack of knowledge of the initial state, or the system at play. Go figure.As you point out above, many subsets or parts of the universe are not deterministically time-reversible at the scale in which they occur (we can, for example, play Conway's Life; we can also let the air out of a tire, shovel snow, etc.).
Among them we find human decisions and willful actions.
There is no such thing as complete knowledge of any physical system. It's a meaningless - even self contradictory - concept.Probability only comes into consideration when you are unaware of all the facts, all the details, when you do not have complete knowledge of the cause or the system at play. If you had complete knowledge, there is no probability, at any level.
My issue is to what extent they are free - an issue you refuse to discuss.Noone has ever disputed the existence of such things. The only issue is whether they are free or not.
Not true.And you have yet to show how they can be considered as such, other than by way of how they appear (i.e. the illusion of being free) due to lack of knowledge of the initial state, or the system at play.
At a practical level, sure, it’s not achievable. But to call it a meaningless concept - when you are able to understand it’s meaning to be able to argue against it, however fallaciously?There is no such thing as complete knowledge of any physical system. It's a meaningless - even self contradictory - concept.
Sure, that’s what you say, yet the actual content of your post, due it seems to your misunderstanding of what it means for something to be deterministic, says otherwise. You can keep saying that you are assuming a deterministic universe as often and as loud as you want, but when you keep introducing that which is inherently indeterministic, as opposed to, say, simply being an illusion of such due to lack of knowledge, for example, then you undermine your own adherence to that assumption.It's also irrelevant here - probability as a marker of indeterminacy has nothing to do with my posting on this topic. All of my posts on this topic assume a deterministic universe.
I have done nothing but discuss it: my position is that they are NOT free within a deterministic universe. Hence my position that free will does not exist within a deterministic universe.My issue is to what extent they are free - an issue you refuse to discuss.
Sure, having more degrees of freedom means that there are more variables affecting the output, but the actual freedom of the system relies on how many positions it can take for a given input. If we knew what each variable was, there would be no freedom at all to the output. The rest is just a matter of the lack of knowledge of the inputs, of the variables, and thus the illusion of having freedom.Not true.
I have several times pointed directly at such considerations,
1) describing them as extrapolations from simpler natural degrees of freedom, including specific examples of similar extrapolations we accept without question
The practical impossibility is what is irrelevant, unless you are only looking at “freedom” as being due to the subjective lack of knowledge. You claim not to be looking at such a freedom, yet you can’t provide anything that is not simply based on the lack of knowledge. I.e. the appearance of freedom. Or “illusion” if you want another word.2) noting that knowledge of the initial state is not only impossible but also irrelevant when considering natural degrees of freedom
On the contrary, it is. Entirely. If you knew the system, and if you knew the input, there would be only one possible output. No freedom for anything else. The degrees of freedom is then just a convenience to describe the number of variables - for which we don't know the specific state - that affect the range of possible outputs for a range of possible and unknown/unspecificed inputs. If you specified every single one of those variables, there would be no degree of freedom. Thus the "degrees of freedom" is wholly due to our lack of knowledge of the specific states.3) noting that no "illusion" is involved in natural degrees of freedom, natural freedom of will, etc (these are observable physical realities)
It must at least be a closed system. If you want to consider a closed system that is smaller than the universe, sure, but the same applies to this system as I have been saying.4) noting that the system in play is not the universe
You have more arguments to knock down? Gee, I guess you haven’t even appealed to complexity yet. Or logical levels. You know, those things that facilitate the lack of knowledge that the subject has, that then gives rise to appearances of freedom.and so forth.
The same way one must drop the assumption that Socrates is a man or not when discussing whether or not he is mortal?The only unmet requirement, for discussing such freedom, is that one drop the assumption that freedom requires doing other than natural law, cause and effect, the determining factors of the universe, determine - drop the assumption that freedom requires the ability to do other than one must.
We are discussing natural freedom: it doesn’t exist. If it is not possible in a deterministic universe then there is, by definition, no natural freedom.That assumption - the assumption that freedom be supernatural - prevents discussion of natural freedom.
I've explained multiple times, so at this point I can only assume I'm suffering from the corollary of Dunning-Kruger, where I've overestimated the intelligence of others. Shame. I was rather hoping you could keep up, at least better than Baldeee.For people to engage with your argument, let alone "not like" it, surely there would first need to be one? At the moment you have merely expressed the theory of time to be relevant but without showing why. Are we to guess as to an actual argument? And do so while accepting your naive understanding of the theories of time?
Shame. I was rather hoping you had something more. But if not then I bid you good day.
Seeing as I've already repeatedly done so, if you haven't understood by now, you never will.I’m not even sure you actually know what question begging is, to be honest.
If you could point it out in my argument, though, I’d be happy to address it.
Being unwilling to engage in bare assertion dismissal is very different from refusing to simply pick a theory of time. Again, I seem to have overestimated the intelligence of others. There's no helping that.Says the person literally unwilling to engage with an argument (that the theory of time is irrelevant to the issue at hand) he just doesn’t like.
Instead of being willing to support the relevance, when asked, of that which you yourself raised, you just prefer to huff and puff, and then to go and sulk in a corner.
Each to their own, I suppose.
So you agree that "Socrates is a man" is an assumption, in that famous argument? Cool. We're almost home.The same way one must drop the assumption that Socrates is a man or not when discussing whether or not he is mortal
Why are you wasting time and space repeating that irrelevant bs? It has nothing to do with my posts.At a practical level, sure, it’s not achievable.
There is no illusion involved in measuring the degrees of freedom of any system.The rest is just a matter of the lack of knowledge of the inputs, of the variables, and thus the illusion of having freedom.
If you could square a circle, there would be only one possible square output. If you could build a perpetual motion machine, you would never have to refuel your rocket. If you could define the square root of two as a rational number, you could prove that 1=0.If you knew the system, and if you knew the input, there would be only one possible output.
Once again, because you are very slow on the uptake: That's irrelevant to my posting.But, and here’s the thing you have missed, are missing, and presumably will continue to miss, and are misrepresenting: there is nothing in that definition that says that this is against the laws of the universe, because within that definition is nothing about the laws of the universe at all.
So you assume, without bothering to consider the matter. (You haven't even begun to "discuss" natural freedom - you refuse by assumption to allow its existence.)We are discussing natural freedom: it doesn’t exist.
Sure. I keep pointing that out - in particular that "by definition" part, along with your assumed equivalence of "deterministic" and "natural".If it is not possible in a deterministic universe then there is, by definition, no natural freedom.
It's not the corollary you seem to be suffering from.I've explained multiple times, so at this point I can only assume I'm suffering from the corollary of Dunning-Kruger, where I've overestimated the intelligence of others. Shame. I was rather hoping you could keep up, at least better than Baldeee.
No, you really haven't.Seeing as I've already repeatedly done so, if you haven't understood by now, you never will.
The irony is that it is you making bare assertions, e.g. that the theory of time is somehow relevant.Being unwilling to engage in bare assertion dismissal is very different from refusing to simply pick a theory of time.
The only things you're overestimating is your own intelligence and honesty in this matter.Again, I seem to have overestimated the intelligence of others. There's no helping that.
Yes, it is an assumption. I’m glad you’re recognising it as such. Note that the assumption is not "Socrates is a man in a universe where all men are mortal".So you agree that "Socrates is a man" is an assumption, in that famous argument? Cool. We're almost home.
Please proceed with this supposed explanation of yours as to the assumption of the supernatural I am making. Next you should be pointing out that “Socrates is a man” is the equivalent of “freedom is the ability to do other than one must”. In and of itself, neither can be used to reach the conclusion of the arguments they are premises for. Just as in the Socrates case, where one must couple the above assumption with “all men are mortal”, so one must couple the freedom premise with the assumption of the deterministic universe.Try reading again. It's not that complicated. I am in all cases dealing with your posted definition, your agreement with the other naive materialist postings of that definition, etc. All the assumptions involved are made by you and the boys.
It has everything to do with it: you are wrong when it comes to theoretical.Why are you wasting time and space repeating that irrelevant bs? It has nothing to do with my posts.
You can say it as often as you want, but it won’t make you any more correct. Although I assume you’re going to now post some supposed proof, such as that which you think you have posted before (e.g. your failure to understand what you posted in reply to Baldeee in post #736)Pay attention: For the hundredth time - and do try to bear down eh? - It is impossible in theory.
Not in practice: in theory.
In theory.
In theory.
In theory.
Then that’s your misunderstanding. I suggest you revisit this discussion from when you first raised it. Because if you think simply raising it again is going to fly, having failed previously to address the criticisms of what you posted and your misunderstandings the first time, then you’re unfortunately deluded.It's impossible as squaring a circle in Euclidian geometry is impossible.
It's impossible as a perpetual motion machine made of physical objects with mass is impossible.
It's impossible as division by zero in the rational numbers is impossible.
It is impossible as writing a closed form solution for a general fifth degree equation is impossible.
It cannot be done because the attempt makes no sense, cannot be aligned with the assumptions involved.
I didn’t say there was. There’s similarly no illusion in counting the number of tricks a magician does.There is no illusion involved in measuring the degrees of freedom of any system.
I have not said that any of that is illusion. But thanks for the straw man. The illusion continues to be in the actual freedom you think that system has. It has none, but the complexity allows the system to appear as if it does. Hence the illusion.There are deep considerations of freedom involved in describing the degrees of freedom of a system as complex as a human mind. They are different in kind, just as the interacting factors are different in kind, from those of simple machinery. They occupy different logical levels. They combine in different ways - some of them involving nonlinear feedback loops that stretch back many years in time.
That is not an illusion. If you try to dismiss it as an illusion, your AI driving system will crash your car.
You’re going to have to support your claim that knowing the system and state of a deterministic system is theoretically impossible. Even one with degrees of freedom. You know, the ones we model all the time. Even chaotic ones. The ones where we do actually know every state, every facet of every instant of the system. You’re being crippled in your thinking by this adherence to the theoretical impossibility of that.If you could square a circle, there would be only one possible square output. If you could build a perpetual motion machine, you would never have to refuel your rocket. If you could define the square root of two as a rational number, you could prove that 1=0.
Do you have a point? Are you making some kind of argument?
It’s not irrelevant. You are refusing to look at the syllogism as presented. That freewill can be concluded to not exist is why it can be concluded to be supernatural. As has been said of your argument before – you are simply looking to beg the question by excluding anything that can be concluded not to exist. So is free will possible… well, if we conclude that it doesn’t exist then it must be excluded from consideration from the outset… and thus we resolve to only being able to say “yes”. That is begging the question. And you are guilty of it in your approach.That's irrelevant to my posting.
No, I conclude, precisely because I have considered the matter. Just as one concludes that Socrates is mortal because one considers the matter.So you assume, without bothering to consider the matter.
If I conclude that freedom is not natural – i.e. can not exist in the deterministic universe – for reasons given – then that is all the discussion of “natural” freedom one needs: it doesn’t exist.(You haven't even begun to "discuss" natural freedom - you refuse by assumption to allow its existence.)
So back to confusing assumption and conclusion you go. And you were doing so well.Then you complain when I point out that you are assuming freedom is supernatural. Go figure.
I am not assuming equivalence at all. But being deterministic is, in a deterministic universe, a requirement of something for it to be natural.Sure. I keep pointing that out - in particular that "by definition" part, along with your assumed equivalence of "deterministic" and "natural".
Sure, but you first need to get past the “if”. Quite a big stumbling block for a thread that aims to look at that very question. You could, of course, also start a discussion on “if it is possible to create a perpetual motion machine…” for much value it has to the discussion at hand. Or you could, as you are doing, simply assume that it does, and follow that question-begging line.Meanwhile: if it is possible in a deterministic universe than there might very well be - by definition, even - natural freedom.
Try a different thread for discussion of freewill that starts with the assumption that it exists, if that is what you want. This thread asks whether it is possible or not, and all you have is question begging to resolve that. So stop your whining. For someone who wants to discuss something else, you spend an awful lot of time doing everything but.It would certainly be worth discussing - and I have suggested a couple of lines of inquiry, starting with the evidence of course (as in all inquiry of the natural).
Hence the discussion available, whenever you guys get around to dropping the supernatural assumption. This year, maybe?
Thus it is time-irreversible: a state, as you head back in time, does not have a single possible preceding state.
It's an analogy, not a direct example. It's aim is purely to show that certain systems are not time-reversible yet still remain deterministic. Whether the mathematical system has a direct physical counterpart is neither here nor there, to be honest. It is the principle that matters.With due respect, can you name a physical state of -25, where its square yields 625? I cannot visualize something like that, except as abstract theory.
Paradox? I can't see it. Unless you can elaborate as to what you're thinking?I can see where x + x = 2x, i.e. a sum can be equal to a multiplication, 2 different functions. It just happens that sometimes a product of a sum is equal to the product of a multiplication. Would tracing back these compatible functions result in paradox?
Exactly what I'd expect someone suffering from Dunning-Kruger to say.It's not the corollary you seem to be suffering from.
No, you haven't even been able to come up with even one example of something being "set" while not yet existing, aside from your repeated bare assertions.Not only have I kept up, I have been able to demonstrate its irrelevance.
The only failure is your lack of comprehension (luckily you share company with Sarkus on that count) and your fallacious bare assertions of irrelevance. It's gotten old and boring. I have repeatedly explained, but you patently refuse to engage other than to harp on things being irrelevant. I guess you feel that serves your purposes.You have failed to explain why and how it is relevant, but rather just keep asserting.
Considering I no longer take you seriously, I really don't care anymore.You really will have to offer something if you want to be taken seriously.
Again, exactly as I'd expect someone suffering from Dunning-Kruger to say.No, you really haven't.
Nah, I'm too bored to patronize you any further. If you can't find my repeated explanations or grasp question begging, that's now your personal problem.But seeing as you think you have already done so, repeatedly, you'll have no issue in finding an example of it and posting it?
That way you can also demonstrate that you know what begging the question actually is.
Nope, you've just repeatedly and stubbornly refused to acknowledge all the times I have explained. Easy to do when you simply dismiss them out of hand, here projecting your own bare assertions.The irony is that it is you making bare assertions, e.g. that the theory of time is somehow relevant.
You have failed to support that assertion, despite every opportunity.
Nonsense analogy you've never once connected the dots for, other than just a demonstration of your complete lack of comprehension.I have fully supported why I consider it to be irrelevant to the issue, at least to my argument - but you constantly want to discuss a car's engine performance by referring to the car's colour.
Having explained many times now, there's literally nothing else I can do to help your lack of basic comprehension. You will, no doubt, just continue to dismiss any further explanation, just as you've proven over and over already. Now quit wasting my time.The only things you're overestimating is your own intelligence and honesty in this matter.
And you could do everything to help that.
You just don't want to.
The simple facts of the matter are that you have asserted the theory of time as being relvant, have repeatedly failed to support that assertion, and have also failed to address any of the arguments in support of its irrelevance.
And all you post now is your repeated unwillingness to address those shortfalls in your position.
Shame indeed.
TY.It's an analogy, not a direct example. It's aim is purely to show that certain systems are not time-reversible yet still remain deterministic. Whether the mathematical system has a direct physical counterpart is neither here nor there, to be honest. It is the principle that matters.
Nor can I. It was more of a rethorical question...Paradox? I can't see it. Unless you can elaborate as to what you're thinking?
And so we are home.Yes, it is an assumption. I’m glad you’re recognising it as such. Note that the assumption is not "Socrates is a man in a universe where all men are mortal".
You did not "conclude" that (except as a consequence of your having assumed it, which is empty). You assumed it.If I conclude that freedom is not natural – i.e. can not exist in the deterministic universe – for reasons given – then that is all the discussion of “natural” freedom one needs: it doesn’t exist.
Discussion of the possibility - the possibility, not the assumption - belongs here, on this thread. Note the title of the thread.Try a different thread for discussion of freewill that starts with the assumption that it exists, if that is what you want.
It's not a stumbling block yet - and won't be until more than one person does in fact "look at" that very question. I haven't had much luck attracting attention to the matter - even on a thread that purportedly "aims" at it. You, for example, just typed the assertion that I needed to "get past" the "if" to begin with - that the discussion had to conclude before it could begin.Sure, but you first need to get past the “if”. Quite a big stumbling block for a thread that aims to look at that very question.