DaveC426913
Valued Senior Member
This is too easy; I can approach it from both sides.
2] Let's pretend it's a granted supposition. to suggest God must interfere every time he could have interfered is
2a] directly antithetical to free will. Your demand is thus that God should not have given us free will.
2b] to blame him for creating man, and indeed - the universe - in the first place.
You keep supposing you know what a creator of a universe would, should or must do.
1] This is your supposition. It is not a basis upon which you can subsequently blame God for not doing something you suppose he could have.God is omniscient.
2] Let's pretend it's a granted supposition. to suggest God must interfere every time he could have interfered is
2a] directly antithetical to free will. Your demand is thus that God should not have given us free will.
2b] to blame him for creating man, and indeed - the universe - in the first place.
I did not suggest it followed implicitly. There are plenty of examples where this is not so. I am saying explicitly that the Christian logic is that God created rules for humans AND is not subject to them, being God after all, and his rules are for his creations.It does not follow that the maker of the rules is therefore above the rules.
It does not follow.And if this were true, then it would destroy the Christian faith, because in it we are to believe that God sacrificed his son because of how much he loved Man. If his actions cannot be immoral, then neither can they be moral, or loving, or anything else that he created.
Why? What obliges him to always interfere? It is pretty clear in the mythos that he sent Jesus because he felt a change was needed.He interfered by sending him in the first place, so there goes that.
You keep supposing you know what a creator of a universe would, should or must do.
You are supposing.And if he knew that his son would die, then yes, he would be obliged to prevent it, just as any other parent would be.
Sure not going to hear that from me. to this day, I still don't know what it's supposed to mean except a guilt trip.And I don't want to hear that he did it so we could be absolved of our sins,
Again though. That would eliminate free will.He could have just as easily snapped his celestial fingers and made it all better.
As before, that's a big if, yet to be demonstrated. And also as before, true or not, you can't claim you know what a God must do.This also raises the question of whether or not we actually have free will, insofar as the Bible is concerned. If God is omniscient, and knew what we would do if he sent Jesus to earth, does him then sending Jesus not constitute predestination?
No, you supposed. His statements are a misrepresentation (even if inadvertent) of the teachings. Your supposition does not change that.He did not. You did. As I have demonstrated.
An opponent could be a serial killer writing from jail and still have a meritorious case. That's why ad homs are a fallacious stance. Ad homs are a specific type of straw man - an attempt to divert the discussion from the debate proper to an area where the committer feels they can argue better.I did. And your argument speaks to a general dishonesty about your professed lack of faith.
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