If God/Jesus does not know sex and reproduction, he is not fit to dictate it’s laws.

This is too easy; I can approach it from both sides.
God is omniscient.
1] This is your supposition. It is not a basis upon which you can subsequently blame God for not doing something you suppose he could have.

2] Let's pretend it's a granted supposition. to suggest God must interfere every time he could have interfered is
2a] directly antithetical to free will. Your demand is thus that God should not have given us free will.
2b] to blame him for creating man, and indeed - the universe - in the first place.

It does not follow that the maker of the rules is therefore above the rules.
I did not suggest it followed implicitly. There are plenty of examples where this is not so. I am saying explicitly that the Christian logic is that God created rules for humans AND is not subject to them, being God after all, and his rules are for his creations.

And if this were true, then it would destroy the Christian faith, because in it we are to believe that God sacrificed his son because of how much he loved Man. If his actions cannot be immoral, then neither can they be moral, or loving, or anything else that he created.
It does not follow.

He interfered by sending him in the first place, so there goes that.
Why? What obliges him to always interfere? It is pretty clear in the mythos that he sent Jesus because he felt a change was needed.

You keep supposing you know what a creator of a universe would, should or must do.

And if he knew that his son would die, then yes, he would be obliged to prevent it, just as any other parent would be.
You are supposing.

And I don't want to hear that he did it so we could be absolved of our sins,
Sure not going to hear that from me. to this day, I still don't know what it's supposed to mean except a guilt trip.

He could have just as easily snapped his celestial fingers and made it all better.
Again though. That would eliminate free will.

This also raises the question of whether or not we actually have free will, insofar as the Bible is concerned. If God is omniscient, and knew what we would do if he sent Jesus to earth, does him then sending Jesus not constitute predestination?
As before, that's a big if, yet to be demonstrated. And also as before, true or not, you can't claim you know what a God must do.

He did not. You did. As I have demonstrated.
No, you supposed. His statements are a misrepresentation (even if inadvertent) of the teachings. Your supposition does not change that.

I did. And your argument speaks to a general dishonesty about your professed lack of faith.
An opponent could be a serial killer writing from jail and still have a meritorious case. That's why ad homs are a fallacious stance. Ad homs are a specific type of straw man - an attempt to divert the discussion from the debate proper to an area where the committer feels they can argue better.
 
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1] This is your supposition. It is not a basis upon which you can subsequently blame God for not doing something you suppose he could have.

It's not a supposition, it's a demonstrable quality of the Christian God. He is omniscient.

2] Let's pretend it's a granted supposition. to suggest God must interfere every time he could have interfered is

Woah, Mr. Straw Man, I never said he must interfere every time he could have interfered. What I actually said was that if he knew that he was sending his son to die, then he was subject to the same moral responsibility that any parent would be, and thus his inaction is immoral.

2a] directly antithetical to free will. Your demand is thus that God should not have given us free will.

My demand is no such thing. Where you are getting this? My "demand" was that God be accountable to the same standards we all are. That he has power over us does not absolve him of this responsibility, otherwise anyone with power over anyone else would also be free from moral responsibility.

Also, if you haven't noticed, the Bible has a real problem with free will. God clearly violates it by forcing certain people to act certain ways (remember the hardening of hearts?), and the idea that omniscience in and of itself muddies the issue considerably. As I said before, if he knows exactly what will happen in Event A, and only by his intervention does Event A come to pass, then his is directly willing Event A to pass, and we have no say in the matter.

2b] to blame him for creating man, and indeed - the universe - in the first place.

Nonsense. I'm not even certain how you arrived at these last two points.


I did not suggest it followed implicitly. There are plenty of examples where this is not so. I am saying explicitly that the Christian logic is that God created rules for humans AND is not subject to them, being God after all, and his rules are for his creations.

But there is no such thing as "Christian logic." If something is not consistent, you can't make it so simply by saying it is. And actual study of the scripture paints a different picture of God than the one Christians are selling, so why should their opinion matter? What matters is what's in the book, and what's in the book does not demonstrate that kind of god.


It does not follow.

Of course it does. If his actions cannot be immoral, then they cannot in turn be moral, because you're talking about two sides of the same coin. And more importantly, this kind of rationale is not presented to us in the Bible. God operates under the same moral assumptions that his followers do, and his rationale for what we now consider immoral acts satisfies the same moral requirements of his followers. We are never shown a God who is above or immune to morality. Granted, there is no one to hold him accountable, but his behavior is not outside of that realm.


Why? What obliges him to always interfere? It is pretty clear that he sent Jesus because he felt a change was needed.

First of all, who says he must always interfere? Do you not find it troubling that your argument requires you to misrepresent my argument? I never said he has to always interfere. I said he has to step in when he has the moral responsibility to. I don't see why this is such a problem for you, since he interferes plenty. You realize Jesus qualifies as one such interference, no?

You are supposing.

Have you not read the Bible? Are you not aware that Jesus' coming was foretold in the Old Testament, and that Jesus himself was fully aware of his fate? The whole "One of you will betray me" business? Are you unfamiliar with the concept of omniscience?

What am I supposed to make of a response like this. I'm supposing that God is omniscient? Read the book, man!

Again though. That would eliminate free will.

As did the option he actually did choose. Should I surprised that you aren't aware of the inconsistencies relating to free will in the Bible?

As before, that's a big if, yet to be demonstrated.

Again, your comments reflect a startling ignorance of the relevant texts. How is it that you could possibly think God's omniscience has yet to be demonstrated? Do I need to quote passages? I honestly wouldn't even know where to begin.

No, you supposed. His statements are a misrepresentation (even if inadvertent) of the teachings. Your supposition does not change that.

You can type it until you're blue in the CAPS LOCK, it doesn't make it any less incorrect. For one, you need to look up the word "supposing," because you're using it wrong here. I've demonstrated my points; saying that they are suppositions is factually inaccurate. Secondly, he has not at all misrepresented the teachings. You, ironically, have. I'm beginning to glean that you haven't even the relevant texts, which is mind-boggling since you're currently (and frequently) engaged in debates about their content.


An opponent could be a serial killer writing from jail and still have a meritorious case. That's why ad homs are a fallacious stance. Ad homs are a specific type of straw man - an attempt to divert the discussion from the debate proper to an area where the committer feels they can argue better.

My point is that your arguments are so lacking, and so reminiscent of half-baked internet apologetics, it's hard to believe that you're actually the non-believer you claim to be. I haven't assumed anything about you, only drawn the vague outline of your character based on the arguments you present. And remember, your status as an unbeliever is something you put on the table as relevant to the conversation. Don't start complaining now that I've recognized that as some failed attempt at a social experiment.
 
I think some people have mis-understood 'free will.' If something WILL, then it is already determined! :) There is no such thing as 'free-will.' It is determined by definition.

Incorrect. Free will, by definition, means voluntary choices or decisions. The "free" part is key, because it means the will is yours, and not someone (or something) else's.

Bestiality is an ab-use of sex because they cannot create children together. God made inter-course the way it is: it takes two; natural selection (one must be able to attract a mate in order to continue the genesis.) The ugly species' will eventually become extinct, and attractive species' become more attractive.

What is it with believers and bestiality? Why is that always the default sin?
 
Your post is based on incorrect facts*. (Facts, in this case being the teachings. You are misrepresenting and misunderstanding the teachings.)

Thanks for not correcting me then.
Quite the apologetics.

God did not have his son murdered. Man did.

Hmm. Jesus---my father who sent me.

Would you send your son or would have the balls to fill the requirements for blood sacrifice that you yourself set by stepping up yourself?

The reason Christians follow Jesus is because they realized God sent them a savior - and men, in their stupidity, killed him.

Yet in the clip below, you will note that he planned it all in advance even before the first sin.

Man killed man. That is not God's example. However, God giving man free will means sometimes he doesn't punish them for their stupidity.

Man killing man does not mean that God would go against his own word.

Psalm 49:7

None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom for him:

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4ott15j2KwQ&feature=related

Regards
DL
 
Incorrect. Free will, by definition, means voluntary choices or decisions. The "free" part is key, because it means the will is yours, and not someone (or something) else's.



What is it with believers and bestiality? Why is that always the default sin?


And due to the fact that God himself used bestiality when he used a human female, a species distinctly not the same as God's species, says that he does not mind bestiality and used it to produce his half breed chimera son.

He then became a deadbeat dad by skipping happily away.

Regards
DL
 
Woah, Mr. Straw Man, I never said he must interfere every time he could have interfered. What I actually said was ...

What you actually said was
And if he knew that his son would die, then yes, he would be obliged to prevent it...

My demand is no such thing. Where you are getting this? My "demand" was that God be accountable to the same standards we all are.
OK, but the Christian God is not accountable to humans. The fact that you don't agree with it doesn't make it illogical.


That he has power over us does not absolve him of this responsibility, otherwise anyone with power over anyone else would also be free from moral responsibility.
This should be obvious: we are all humans, ostensibly created equal enough that we can't claim to have power over each other. That is qualitatively different from an entity that made the universe.


Also, if you haven't noticed, the Bible has a real problem with free will. God clearly violates it by forcing certain people to act certain ways (remember the hardening of hearts?),

God takes control of people sometimes. That does not mean he eliminates free will from humans.

and the idea that omniscience in and of itself muddies the issue considerably. As I said before, if he knows exactly what will happen in Event A, and only by his intervention does Event A come to pass, then his is directly willing Event A to pass,
I told my child not to run in the living room because of the slippery floors. He did so anyway (because he has free will). He slipped and bumped his head himself. I knew this would happen because I am wise. Now he doesn't run in the living room.

Are you suggesting I am to be faulted for this? That I was morally obliged in step in? That to not step in is to be immoral?



and we have no say in the matter.
Of course we do. We were the ones bringing the event to pass - the killing of Jesus.

Nonsense. I'm not even certain how you arrived at these last two points.
You seem to be trying to hold God culpable for the murder of Jesus Correct me if I'm wrong. (I'll quote you if necessary). Your argument seems to be 'if he foresaw it, he was obliged to prevent it'. That logic, if valid could be applied to the creation of the entire human race. He foresaw all this mayhem, why didn't he act to prevent their creation in the first place? Why create the universe even?

But there is no such thing as "Christian logic."
This is circular. It is also utterly unproveable. You cannot demonstrate that there is no such thing as logic in a given belief system.

If something is not consistent, you can't make it so simply by saying it is.
If the Christians think that God is God, and created the universe, then it is logical to conclude that he is not bound by laws he made for humans any more then he is bound by gravity or the need to breathe.

And actual study of the scripture paints a different picture of God than the one Christians are selling, so why should their opinion matter? What matters is what's in the book, and what's in the book does not demonstrate that kind of god.
Well, that what we're arguing, isn't it? You can't use it to make your case.

Of course it does. If his actions cannot be immoral, then they cannot in turn be moral, because you're talking about two sides of the same coin.
Who said they have to be either? He is a God.



First of all, who says he must always interfere? Do you not find it troubling that your argument requires you to misrepresent my argument? I never said he has to always interfere. I said he has to step in when he has the moral responsibility to.
I do not see a distinction between those two. Call it my failing. Don't be so quick to assume the worst of your opponents.

I don't see why this is such a problem for you, since he interferes plenty. You realize Jesus qualifies as one such interference, no?
Of course. It wasn;t out of a moral sense though. It was because he wanted humans to hear his requirements. That's not moral; it's simply his will.


Have you not read the Bible? Are you not aware that Jesus' coming was foretold in the Old Testament, and that Jesus himself was fully aware of his fate? The whole "One of you will betray me" business? Are you unfamiliar with the concept of omniscience?
Jesus making a prediction does not lead inevitably to God being omniscient.

Do I need to quote passages?
It would certainly behoove you to.



You can type it until you're blue in the CAPS LOCK, it doesn't make it any less incorrect.
I typed it only and exactly as many times as you used the word if.


For one, you need to look up the word "supposing," because you're using it wrong here.
Suppose - Assume that something is the case on the basis of evidence or probability but without proof or certain knowledge.


I've demonstrated my points; saying that they are suppositions is factually inaccurate. Secondly, he has not at all misrepresented the teachings. You, ironically, have. I'm beginning to glean that you haven't even the relevant texts, which is mind-boggling since you're currently (and frequently) engaged in debates about their content.
You have yet to provide a single example.

...your status as an unbeliever is something you put on the table as relevant to the conversation...
Let me be clear then. The reason I have been saying that has nothing to do with my personal stance, or with you, as a primary opponent. The reason I am saying it is because this thread is now the hundreds of posts, and for posterity, it will certainly not be apparent to anyone joining in the middle that I am playing Devil's Advocate. That I'm attempting to argue only logic, not belief.

I believe that the majority of atheists shoot themselves in the foot by presenting as angry and emotional. If we believe we are rational, we need to act rational. (And you've seen me play that card in other threads; you know I frown upon theatrics.) It doesn't matter whether you think that's pretentious, it is my decision to stay rational.
 
OK, but the Christian God is not accountable to humans. The fact that you don't agree with it doesn't make it illogical.

I never said he was. I said that him making the rules does not make him above them.

This should be obvious: we are all humans, ostensibly created equal enough that we can't claim to have power over each other. That is qualitatively different from an entity that made the universe.

But we aren't all equal. There are weak and strong among us, and this disparity has been used as justification for the consolidation of power by tyrants since the dawn of civilization. Indeed, our moral values call upon us to protect the weak and helpless, so this homogeneity you assume doesn't really exist, and thus cannot be what prevents "good" people from exerting whatever power they have over those weaker than themselves.

Anyway, we are supposedly created in God's image, so whatever traits we share with each other, we share with him, as well. This is demonstrated in God's behavior in the Bible.

God takes control of people sometimes. That does not mean he eliminates free will from humans.

The larger point is that the Bible can't really seem to make heads or tails of what actually constitutes free will. I have already argued that God's omniscience could be viewed as the total negation of free will, as one cannot act freely if the omniscient being has foreknowledge of the actions. If God knows "A" will happen, there is no way "A" cannot happen.

I told my child not to run in the living room because of the slippery floors. He did so anyway (because he has free will). He slipped and bumped his head himself. I knew this would happen because I am wise. Now he doesn't run in the living room.

False premise. You knew there was a high probability that he would fall, but you did not have foreknowledge of the event. You understand this is a significant difference.

Are you suggesting I am to be faulted for this? That I was morally obliged in step in? That to not step in is to be immoral?

By allowing him to fall on his own, he could benefit from a first-hand lesson on the dangers of such a dangerous behavior. However, this presents the risk of serious injury, even death. Is the hard lesson worth that risk? I would say no, just on the face of it, and your letting him fall constitutes negligence, and since injury is involved, is immoral.


Of course we do. We were the ones bringing the event to pass - the killing of Jesus.

Not if God already knew it would happen, which is explicitly stated in the Bible.

You seem to be trying to hold God culpable for the murder of Jesus Correct me if I'm wrong. (I'll quote you if necessary). Your argument seems to be 'if he foresaw it, he was obliged to prevent it'. That logic, if valid could be applied to the creation of the entire human race. He foresaw all this mayhem, why didn't he act to prevent their creation in the first place? Why create the universe even?

You could take the argument back that far, certainly. I don't see how that invalidates it, however.

This is circular. It is also utterly unproveable. You cannot demonstrate that there is no such thing as logic in a given belief system.

Of course you can. I cannot say "Red is red, therefore blue is red" and call it logic. You're telling me there is no way to demonstrate the fallacy in this statement?


If the Christians think that God is God, and created the universe, then it is logical to conclude that he is not bound by laws he made for humans any more then he is bound by gravity or the need to breathe.

No, it's not. This is where you keep getting tripped up. "Because he created it" is not a logical explanation for why a creator would be exempt from the rules of the universe. There is nothing inherently exempting in the act of creation.

Well, that what we're arguing, isn't it? You can't use it to make your case.

Excuse me? Are you actually trying to tell me I cannot use the evidence for God's nature as evidence for his nature? How convenient for you!

What a silly thing to say.

Who said they have to be either? He is a God.

I've given reasons why these conditions exist. You have yet to demonstrate why being a god would exempt him from them. Saying "He is a God" is therefore no response at all.


I do not see a distinction between those two. Call it my failing. Don't be so quick to assume the worst of your opponents.


I don't assume anything. I only go by what you write. And on that count, yes, I do see this as your failing. One of many.

Of course. It wasn;t out of a moral sense though. It was because he wanted humans to hear his requirements. That's not moral; it's simply his will.

That would be like saying "I killed a million people because it was my will, therefore it is not a moral issue." Obviously the act of sacrificing your son (indeed, creating him expressly for the purpose of sacrificing him) is immoral. If you believe God can do no immoral act because the rules do not apply to him, then trying to find loopholes in those rules is a useless exercise, no?

Jesus making a prediction does not lead inevitably to God being omniscient.

I can only suggest that you read the scripture. If you call Jesus' foreknowledge of the events--and their relation to God's plan for him--a "prediction," then I can safely assume that you haven't.

It would certainly behoove you to.

1 John 3:19-20 [19] This then is how we know that we belong to the truth, and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence [20] whenever our hearts condemn us. For God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything.

Job 37:16 Do you know how the clouds hang poised, those wonders of him who is perfect in knowledge?

Psalms 147:5 Great is our Lord and mighty in power; his understanding has no limit.

Psalms 139:4 Before a word is on my tongue you know it completely, O LORD.

1 Peter 1:20 He was chosen before the creation of the world, but was revealed in these last times for your sake.

Mark 13:32 No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father.

Matthew 20:17-19 [17] Now as Jesus was going up to Jerusalem, he took the twelve disciples aside and said to them, [18] "We are going up to Jerusalem, and the Son of Man will be betrayed to the chief priests and the teachers of the law. They will condemn him to death [19] and will turn him over to the Gentiles to be mocked and flogged and crucified. On the third day he will be raised to life!" [JDawg's note: Prediction? Really?]

2 Kings 7:1-2 [1] Elisha said, "Hear the word of the LORD. This is what the LORD says: About this time tomorrow, a seah of flour will sell for a shekel and two seahs of barley for a shekel at the gate of Samaria." [2] The officer on whose arm the king was leaning said to the man of God, "Look, even if the LORD should open the floodgates of the heavens, could this happen?" "You will see it with your own eyes," answered Elisha, "but you will not eat any of it!"

Ephesians 1:9-12 [9] And he made known to us the mystery of his will according to his good pleasure, which he purposed in Christ, [10] to be put into effect when the times will have reached their fulfillment -- to bring all things in heaven and on earth together under one head, even Christ. [11] In him we were also chosen, having been predestined according to the plan of him who works out everything in conformity with the purpose of his will, [12] in order that we, who were the first to hope in Christ, might be for the praise of his glory.

I mean, this stuff is simple. What do you think prophecies are? It's divine foreknowledge. How can God not be omniscient if he's able to divulge events to people prior to their occurrence? And not simply things like Jesus' birth, but events resulting for the "free will" of men?


I typed it only and exactly as many times as you used the word if.

Another glaring example of your ignorance of the scripture. The "ifs" are not predictive. It's like saying "If two plus two equals four."


You have yet to provide a single example.

I was operating under the misapprehension that you had actually read the scripture. Therefore I did not think I had to provide examples of God's omniscience. My fault. I have since rectified the situation.

Let me be clear then. The reason I have been saying that has nothing to do with my personal stance, or with you, as a primary opponent. The reason I am saying it is because this thread is now the hundreds of posts, and for posterity, it will certainly not be apparent to anyone joining in the middle that I am playing Devil's Advocate. That I'm attempting to argue only logic, not belief.

Yet your argument is indicative of belief, and not logic, so one could easily construe your insistence on being a non-believer as a ruse perpetrated by a believer so that an apologetic argument could appear to come from a non-apologist. I've seen it before, and not just in religious discourse; in sporting forums, sometimes a fan of a rival team will pretend to be a fan of the team he's about to disparage in an attempt to give his argument more gravity.

This kind of deception is, of course, the basis of the Intelligent Design movement. By perpetuating their creation myth under the guise of biological science, the proponents of ID are attempting to circumvent the roadblocks that prevent the religious indoctrination of public school students.

I believe that the majority of atheists shoot themselves in the foot by presenting as angry and emotional. If we believe we are rational, we need to act rational. (And you've seen me play that card in other threads; you know I frown upon theatrics.) It doesn't matter whether you think that's pretentious, it is my decision to stay rational.

One could easily point to your constant whining about the level of discourse as theatrics in their own right. But your point about anger and emotion again reeks of Christian subterfuge. What is emotional about the appeal to keep Church and State separate? Is it not logical to demand that creation myths be kept out of biology classes?

Moderate theists usually complain that the arguments against faith are often inflammatory, and that atheists would "get further" in their arguments if they toned down the rhetoric, but this misses the point; we are not out to convince Christians to become atheists, we are simply pointing out the dangers and failings of faith in how they relate to society, and giving reasons as to why faith needs to be kept entirely separate. In order to convey these reasons, it behooves us to be honest and accurate in our depiction of those faiths.
 
I never said he was. I said that him making the rules does not make him above them.

But isn't it atheists who often claim that morality (i.e. "the rules") can be equally derived without a god? This would necessarily mean that such a god didn't make the rules so much as the nature of man (i.e. free will and value judgment) determined them. IOW, the rules are tailor made for man, regardless of their source, so how can these rules apply to a god?

Or in simple terms you may understand, does giving your children a bed time equally apply to you? Same thing you are saying; the rules apply equally to the rule maker.

There seems to be no limit to the ridiculous claims you will make.
 
But we aren't all equal.
It doesn't matter. From where God is standing, in the Christian belief, we are. There's God and there's all humans.

Anyway, we are supposedly created in God's image, so whatever traits we share with each other, we share with him, as well.
You are taking it too literally. Christians claim we were created in his image. There is no suggestion that we cannot but act like him. The free will thing again.

I have already argued that God's omniscience could be viewed as the total negation of free will, as one cannot act freely if the omniscient being has foreknowledge of the actions. If God knows "A" will happen, there is no way "A" cannot happen.
This has come up on other boards. The conclusion was the the two are not exclusive. If you feel this is an important part of your case, I can go into the details.

(Incidentally note that you cannot claim categorically that I am wrong - without first hearing the logic - of which you are yet unaware. This mirrors my main argument. You cannot claim God is illogical or paradoxical without first understanding the logic. To claim so is a hasty conclusion. My point all along.)


False premise. You knew there was a high probability that he would fall, but you did not have foreknowledge of the event. You understand this is a significant difference.
Whether 90% or 100% makes no difference to your argument, which was that, by not acting, I am immoral.

Is the hard lesson worth that risk? I would say no, just on the face of it, and your letting him fall constitutes negligence, and since injury is involved, is immoral.
Then you are at odds with virtually every caring parent that ever lived. No, it is most decidedly not immoral to let a child make his own mistakes within reason. That is what parenting is.

You could take the argument back that far, certainly. I don't see how that invalidates it, however.
So, would you put your money behind it? Do you claim that God is culpable for any act causing harm that he did not step in to?

Of course you can. I cannot say "Red is red, therefore blue is red" and call it logic. You're telling me there is no way to demonstrate the fallacy in this statement?
Nope. I'm telling you that there's no way to demonstrate the fallacy of this statement - which is what you said:
"there is no such thing as "Christian logic."
Go ahead, prove that nothing at all in Christianity follows any form of logic.

This is why there's no way you can prevail in this discussion. You have taken too strong a stance. I am claiming it is plausible that God's logic and his actions are not truly paradoxical. Your claim is that my claim is false - that there is no possibility.

To make your case, you must prove that there are no exceptions. I only have to demonstrate a single exception to yours. That's the advantage of taking a more moderate stance.


No, it's not. This is where you keep getting tripped up. "Because he created it" is not a logical explanation for why a creator would be exempt from the rules of the universe. There is nothing inherently exempting in the act of creation.
The onus is on you to show that that must be so. Your case depends on it. If God could be beyond his own rules, your case falls apart.

Until that is shown, my argument (that it can be so) stands. I merely point to an analogy: a biologist in a lab sees a sign on a wall that says "no feeding the animals after midnight". The rules does not apply to him.

Excuse me? Are you actually trying to tell me I cannot use the evidence for God's nature as evidence for his nature? How convenient for you!
As long as a given piece of evidence is in dispute, no you can't use it to support the evidence.

"My claim is that Red is blue!"
"What evidence do you have to support this?"
"My evidence is that red really is blue!"



I've given reasons why these conditions exist. You have yet to demonstrate why being a god would exempt him from them.
No, the onus is on you because you have taken a stronger stance. I merely have to demonstrate that God can plausibly be exempt, I am not obliged to demonstrate that he is exempt.

Obviously the act of sacrificing your son (indeed, creating him expressly for the purpose of sacrificing him)
You keep advancing the goalposts tyo your own detriment . But okay, now you are obliged to demonstrate that
a] God, not man, sacrificed his son, and
b] he created him for the express purpose of sacrificing him.


1 John 3:19-20 [19] This then is how we know that we belong to the truth, and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence [20] whenever our hearts condemn us. For God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything.
Finally! Man, getting you to lay out your case is like pulling teeth. You can't simply state something as self-evident, then call your opponent ignorant. Not once have I claimed God is not omniscient, I simply requested you put your money where your "ifs" are.

The "ifs" are not predictive. It's like saying "If two plus two equals four."
They were your ifs. They were not granted until you made your case.

And yes, if the discussion were about basic axioms in mathematics, it would not be self-evident that 2+2=4 until you stated you were invoking the appropriate axiom.

You can't claim your case you're in the middle of making is equivalent to 2+2=4. This is continuing to put the cart before the horse.

So, the second pillar of your case remains: even if God knew beforehand of events causing harm to humans, why does that mean he is obliged to interfere? Your case is dependent on this being true. My case is not dependent on it being untrue.

One could easily point to your constant whining about the level of discourse as theatrics in their own right.
It is called a point of order - requesting a forum member adhere to the rules. You heap ad hom on top of ad hom, as if you hope that will strengthen your argument.

You are at risk of losing the debate through nothing more that continual resort to dirty tricks. I've discussed with you respectfully and in good faith, despite the fact that you have not returned the courtesy.
 
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I warned you about continued accusations of ad hominem, and now seeing the true motive behind it (my eventual "disqualification" based on the invented ad hom attacks), I'm not going to play your game anymore. You clearly have no familiarity with the texts, and therefore a second-hand understanding of Christianity, so this exercise is futile. You will always and inevitably appeal to your own misapprehensions, and when I correct you, you will cry foul or simply change the subject.

We're done.
 
Incorrect. Free will, by definition, means voluntary choices or decisions. The "free" part is key, because it means the will is yours, and not someone (or something) else's.
How can WILL (something that WILL be) be free, since it (will) is already determined?! If something WILL, then it is already determined by definition.
 
How can WILL (something that WILL be) be free, since it (will) is already determined?! If something WILL, then it is already determined by definition.

Try looking up a few more definitions for "will".
 
Syne is correct. Hertz, you are mixing up definitions of the word.

You are using the verb. Everyone else is using the noun.
 
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