How exactly does adrenaline dull pain?

[Hercules Rockefeller]

This is wrong

Who says? What part of that paragraph do you think is incorrect?

That quotation is taken directly from wikipedia. Wikipedia isn’t always accurate but as far as I know that paragraph, although very general and broad in its description, is correct.

 

[Asguard]

basically from what i know (which could be wrong i admit) nor-adrenilin comes first, apart from a level being present at all times as a nerotransmiter when a sympathetic stimulas is observed (which could be anything from the brain registering a lion to the kidneys reacting to loss of blood) the brain activates the production of NOR-adrenilin which then brakes down to adrenilin. The main difference being that once nor-adrenilin is broken down (sorry i KNOW "broken down" is the wrong word but i cant rember the right one) it cant pass back through the blood-brain barrier

if you disagree feel free to point out why because i SHOULD know this

 

[visceral_instinct]

Well yes, that’s what analgesic drugs do! They specifically target the pain sensing and transmission pathways in either the peripheral or central nervous system (depending on the drug).

It’s unfortunate if analgesics don’t work well for you; I’m sure you’re not alone in that circumstance. A lot of research effort goes into chronic pain relief and new analgesics that are stronger yet non-addictive. Anyway, adrenaline is the body’s temporary pain reliever. I’m not sure if it has any potential utility for sustained pain relief.

It's ok, I started using Nurofen Plus instead of that useless shit Feminax, it actually works.

I just reasoned that if an adrenaline rush can completely deaden pain in about 5 seconds, surely the pharmaceutical companies can do better than something that takes half an hour to reduce pain from 'almost passing out' to 'just about endurable if you clench your fists and dig your nails into underside of palms.'

 

[Hercules Rockefeller]

basically from what i know ... nor-adrenilin comes first ...

Firstly, norepinephrine (NE) is not "broken down" to produce epinephrine (EP). EP is formed by the N-methylation of NE, so NE acts as the precursor to EP in adrenergic neurons and the in the adrenal medulla.

Secondly, NE and EP can act as neurotransmitters or hormones in the periphery and in the central nervous system (CNS). NE acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain as well as in postganglionic, sympathetic neurons. When EP is secreted from the adrenal glands into the bloodstream, it elicits a variety of responses in peripheral tissues via catecholamine receptors. So, it predominantly acts as a hormone. Small amounts of EP are also found in the CNS, particularly in the brainstem. This is in contrast to NE which acts as both a CNS and PNS neurotransmitter as well as a secreted hormone in the PNS (I think).

So, given the CNS functions of NE and the PNS functions of EP, maybe you can see why this statement, which you claim is wrong, can be considered true in a broad sense:

Although epinephrine does not have any psychoactive effects, stress or arousal also releases norepinephrine in the brain. Norepinephrine has similar actions in the body, but is also psychoactive.